Tuesday 13 October 2020

True Indology: "Rana Safvi says Paraśurāma was a Persian"

 

True Indology: "Rana Safvi says Paraśurāma was a Persian".

Shrikant Talageri

 

Someone sent me a twitter thread of True Indology's comments on a writer named Rana Safvi who is apparently being touted as a master-historian, and who has been given plenty of "awards" for her alleged historical skills by other anti-Hindu and leftist authorities.  True Indology gives quite an impressive list of her "historical" gaffes. No-one among us is unaware of how the leftists and anti-Hindus dominate the world of information and knowledge and are in positions of power and privilege and are able to award, reward, punish, stonewall, slander, etc. whoever they find it fit to do in the course of their anti-Hindu activities. I myself have plenty of reason, in fact more reason than most, to know and condemn the activities of such fake scholars and writers, since I have borne the brunt of their venom or disinformation techniques than anyone else.

But, there is this other side of the story: the narrow-minded bigots, who actually claim to be fighting for the "Hindu" side, but are as ignorant of facts, and as determinedly unwilling to acquaint themselves with them, as the leftists and anti-Hindus. I am as much anathema to many of them as to the leftists, because they do not like the Truth and the facts. And strangely, they do not want the "Hindu" side to win on the basis of the Truth and the facts, either: they would prefer to wallow in ignorant ideas and assertions, and to let the "Hindu" side lose the battle, by allowing the leftists full monopoly over the serious debate, while they expressly want Hindus only to debate silly and irrational ideas and issues.

This came out once again in the responses to True Indology's tweet.

 

The tweet was as follows:

 

 

This tweet has aroused a storm of derision for Rana Safvi, and no doubt, as part of the whole exposure, well-deserved derision. However, the responses to this particular tweet included many which have also dragged me into this picture. A few tweets pointed out that I had also made a similar claim. Many other fans of True Indology (I won't dignify them by naming them) drew out their knives to attack me, one of them, for example, declaring that he found my claim "far-fetched" and another, somehow under the impression that I have a craving for extremely stupid and illiterate "fans", declared that it was because of such "weird" claims on my part (and Koenraad Elst's) that he was "a fan of neither" of us!

I am aware that the internet, and places like facebook and twitter, are happy-hunting grounds for the mentally-sick, the compulsive trolls, and for extremely stupid and illiterate (but swollen-headed) people, so I have remained firm in myself not stepping into such twilight-zone quicksand regions.

But in the rare case, when such cases are brought to my notice, I do sometimes find it necessary to comment. This is one of them.

 

Firstly, "Persia" or "Iran" did not exist as such in the time of Rāma, the son of Jamadagni Bhārgava. Even the worst anti-Hindu historian does not place the Rigveda at a date later than 1000 BCE, and both these personalities are Rigvedic figures. Even at this date (1000 BCE), present day "Iran" and ancient "Persia" did not exist. Here are some western sources on this:

We find no evidence of the future ‘Iranians’ previous to the ninth century BC. The first allusion to the Parsua or Persians, then localized in the mountains of Kurdistan, and to the Madai or medes, already established on the plain, occurs in 837 BC in connection with the expedition of the Assyrian king Shalmaneser III. About a hundred years afterwards, the Medes invaded the plateau which we call Persia (or Iran) driving back or assimilating populations of whom there is no written record” (LAROUSSE 1959:321). 

By the mid-ninth century BC two major groups of Iranians appear in cuneiform sources: the Medes and the Persians. [….]  What is reasonably clear from the cuneiform sources is that the Medes and Persians (and no doubt other Iranian peoples not identified by name) were moving into western Iran from the east” (Encyclopaedia Britannica, 1974, Vol.9, 832).

‘Persians’ are first mentioned in the 9th century BC Assyrian annals: on one campaign, in 835 BC, Shalmaneser (858-824) is said to have received tributes from 27 kings of Paršuwaš; the Medes are mentioned under Tiglath-Pileser III (744-727 BC) [….] There are no literary sources for Iranians in Central Asia before the Old Persian inscriptions (Darius’s Bisotun inscription, 521-519 BC, ed. Schmitt) these show that by the mid-1st millennium BC tribes called Sakas by the Persians and Scythians by the Greeks were spread throughout Central Asia, from the westernmost edges (north and northwest of the Black Sea) to its easternmost borders” (SKJÆRVØ 1995:156).

So if Parśurāma was a "Persian", he cannot have been from "Persia" or "Iran". What was he then, and from which area?

 

People who try to derive the whole of Indian/Hindu religion and culture from the Vedic religion and culture, and who prefer myths to facts, do not (and will not) like what I have to say in this respect, but the fact is that the Rigveda was a book of just one of the many tribal conglomerates of ancient India: of the Pūrus, and initially of only the Bharata-Pūrus among them, who resided in present-day Haryana and westernmost U.P. Our great Hindu religion and culture is a magnificent, spreading banyan tree, and Vedic religion and culture were not the roots of this tree, they were just one local branch. All the other branches were, and are, equally Indian, and equally Hindu.

One of these other branches of this great Indian and Hindu banyan tree was the religion and culture of the Anu branch to the west of the Pūrus. Later on in time, sections of these Anus migrated westwards and gave birth to the religions, cultures and civilizations of the Iranians (including Persians, Parthians, Medians, etc.) and the Greeks, Thraco-Phrygians (Armenians) and Illyrians (Albanians). But this does not make their Indian and Hindu ancestors of the Vedic days non-Indian or non-Hindu, or natives of Iran, West Asia or Europe.

The dāśarājña battle described in the Rigveda took place between Sudās, the Rigvedic Pūru-Bharata king on the one hand (who, let me make it clear here, was the aggressor in this battle), and a coalition of ten Anu tribes of the Punjab, which included the Parśavas (proto-Persians), Pārthavas (proto-Parthians), Pakthas (proto-Pakhtoons), Bhalānas (proto-Baluchis) and others. After the battle, most of these tribes migrated or spread out westwards. But even during the subsequent period of composition of the Avesta, these people had not spread into present-day Iran or the areas of ancient Persia: they were still restricted to Afghanistan! Centuries later, they spread out into those historical areas.

The Bhṛgus were the priests of the Anus (and enemies of the Aṅgiras, who were the priests of the Pūrus or Vedic Aryans), and were also arraigned against Sudās in the battle.. However, well before this battle, one section of these Bhṛgus had separated from the others, and aligned with the Pūrus. This group was led by Jamadagni, the father of Rāma (later remembered as Parśu-rāma, since he and his father belonged to the Parśu tribe, which was 100% as Indian and Hindu as the Bharata Pūru tribe). Later, as myths were manufactured in his name, his name was associated with the paraśu, or "axe", and his name also became more popularly Paraśu-rāma.

Therefore, nothing associates him with the "Persians" or "Iranians" of very much latter-day history. He was fully Indian and Hindu. And in fact, the latter-day Persians and Iranians of the west were not even related to him: they were local natives of the Iranian plateau who accepted the language, religion and culture of the Indian Parśu tribe (and the other Anu tribes) which migrated westwards.

So why all this fuss over the fact that Rāma, the son of Jamadagni was a "Parśu"? Linguistically also, the name Jamadagni itself is "Iranian" (let me repeat, Indian and Hindu "proto-Iranian" Anu of the Rigvedic days). In Vedic, the name would have had "gamad-". And the only other name with -agni in the entire Vedic period is the Avestan name Dāštāγni.

In my second book, in chapter 6, I have given in full detail the history of the Aṅgirases and Bhṛgus in the Rigvedic period (TALAGERI 2000:163-231). I would advise people to read this (and read it intelligently) in full before making illiterate comments comparing me with Rana Safvi, or dismissing, on childish grounds, the conclusions derived by me from the actual original data.

I will end this article on this note, although there is a corollary issue that I would have wanted to take up: the tragic tendency among self-styled militant Hindus to take "sides" based on the biases and prejudices of the ancient writers of the Sanskrit books. This is a very controversial issue and I will leave it for a different article in future.

 

 

135 comments:

  1. Wonderful article explaining that the Persian were historically Indians not the todays persians. But however I find it strange that you do not apply to same logic to the Yavanas who appear as Kalayana in the Ithihasas and Puranas. What is a yavan named Naraka doing in story/myth/history with Krishna?

    Now as you have pointed above, the -Persians and Medes do not figure in the Middle East up until the 8-9 century BCE but however we have evidence of the IE greeks (Mycenaean/Ionian culture) in around 1400 BCE mentioned in the Linear B table, so if we have to consider your model that Drahyu tribes were the earliest to leave ( Anatolian is the earlist attest language of Drahyu branch) then the Anus left later ( Mycenaean Greek is the attested languages of the Anu branch) the why do we find that the Puru branch (Mitannis) is already present in the middle East prior or in and around the same time of the Mycenaeans(Greeks) and who, according to you respresent the Anu branch. This all implies that one of the Anu branch as mention above appear along the Puru branch (Mitannis) while the rest of the Anu did not reach up until the 8-9 century BCE. This to me is a discrepancy in your model. While we might consider the fact the Mitannis might not be a Indo-Aryan but Indo-Iranian or maybe Proto-Ionians.

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    1. Did I really refer in some writings of mine to "Yavanas who appear as Kalayana in the itihasas and Puranas, and a yavan named Naraka in story/myth/history with Krishna"? Maybe I have developed amnesia. Please inform me when, in which book or article, and in what context I have referred to them, let alone "applied" any kind of "logic" to these references?

      Yavanas and Romakas appear in most later Sanskrit texts, most of which were composed in the Mauryan period or later. Have I written books or articles about them?

      Also, in which book or article of mine have I given the exact dates (based on my analysis of the Rigveda?) when the Greeks appeared in Greece or the Iranians in Iran? I leave those to the experts in the respective fields.

      And where have I said that all the Anus (Greeks, Iranians, Armenians, Albanians) migrated westwards at exactly the same time, holding hands? My memory tells me that I have referred to an Indo-Iranian/Mature Harappan period after the Greeks, Armenians and Albanians had already moved westwards.

      Please, find actual "discrepancies" if you can. Don't make up non-existent ones.

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    2. Thank you for your response. You are not reading properly what I typed above. I never said you referred to Kalayavan in any of your works... What I am trying to say is you, yourself admit that the Mahabharata is 1500 BCE, now in this text you have a character named Kalayavana who his clearly intertwined with the events of Krishna. Now are you saying that the Mahabharata is a post Mauryan text? or that story/event of a Yavana with Sri Krishna is a forgery/fictional? Also you willing include the Madras in your the Anu conglomeration but not the rest of the tribe(s) though they found only mentioned in the Puranas

      Tell me something, are you saying though the Ionians are IE tribe they couldn't have orginated in or around the Indian subcontinent? This does not make sense. They are not a sub-tribe of the Hellene (Alina) because this is clear if you read herodotus's 'The Histories'. Also both the Medians(Madra) and Javan(Yavana) are mentioned in the bible.

      This is very clearly suggest localization of this tribe, they are not a sub-tribe as pointed above. So this leaves us with one conclusion, since both the Median and Ionian are mentioned in the bible they must had a close connection with each other and most probably migrated around in their respected areas before the bible was composed. The mitanni could be the Madras while the Mycenaean the Ionians.

      As for your second point you have mentioned dates of the arrival of the Persians in the middle east with time limit after 1000BC which you, yourself have quoted other scholars. Also you have not distinquised between what defines a Drahyus or a Anus tribe(s).

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    3. Also Yavana is mentioned in the Ramayana as well which is clearly much older than the Mahabharata. Futhermore we find two references to Yavana in the 2nd and 4th Khanda(chapter), keep in mind the last chapter of the Ramayana is interpolation (added much later) according to scholars/. So this means the reference to yavana is authentic and not interpolated since the reference appears twice and not in the last khanda (chapter).

      Now are we going to disregard our ancient texts and conclude a very late date for these texts to satisfy what Westerners tell us about Indian history? If the Mahabharata is dated around 1500-1000 BC then ramayana must be around 1800-1500BC so this leaves no room for the later Yavana who invade India by Alexander the Great.

      We need to rethink the history of many tribes in these texts and try to reconsile them based on the Indian texts and not what Westerners have intially told us.

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    4. I assure you I have read your comments very carefully. When you say "I find it strange that you do not apply to same logic to the Yavanas who appear as Kalayana in the Ithihasas and Puranas", what does this mean? Tomorrow you will write "you do not apply the same logic to the assassinations of Abraham Lincoln and Joghn Kennedy", and when I reply that I have never written anything about them, you will again reply that you never said I have written abut them!!! Why refer to millions of things I have not written about and tell me I have not applied logic to them?

      And also whatever I am saying is not something I am saying "now": it is something that I have been saying from the very beginning.

      The Ramayana and Mahabharata, in their core events, obviously took place long before the Maurya period, but the texts we have today are, in their entirety, books written in the Mauryan period, in which the original core events were jumbled up with countless stories, myths and details of every period till that time. I have written about this countless times.

      No, I am not going to "disregard" anything because anyone, whether Westerners or traditionalists, want me to do so. I will go strictly by the facts, whether anyone likes it or not, and whether I make friends or enemies because of it.

      The only references to Yavanas, Romakas, and for that matter, to the Cholas, Pandyas and Cheras, are found in the post-Vedic texts, all of which were given their present form in the Mauryan period, when the Greeks, Romans, and the three Great Southern Kingdoms were known to the writers of North India.

      If the Yavanas and Romakas were an "Indian" tribe in the Mahabharata period (1500 BCE), why is it they do not appear in the Veda Samhitas, Brahmanas and Aranyakas? Why only in books finalized after 300 BCE?

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    5. Here is what Wikipedia for example says about the Ionians: "The Ionians (/aɪˈoʊniənz/; Greek: Ἴωνες, Íōnes, singular Ἴων, Íōn) were one of the four major tribes that the Greeks considered themselves to be divided into during the ancient period; the other three being the Dorians, Aeolians, and Achaeans."

      So if you want to rewrite the historical identity of the Ionians (as also to identify the Mitanni with the Madians, etc.) to counter western positions, you will have to do research and write a book about it. Arguing with me will not help.

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    6. Also, you write: "Also you have not distinquised between what defines a Drahyus or a Anus tribe(s)"!! The Druhyus appear only marginally in the Rigveda and the Puranas. Already yjey are receding in the distance. I am probably the person who has written more about them anyone else. Do you want me to now abandon textual evidence and resort to crystal-ball reading and time-machine travelling to discover absolutely comp;ete details about them?

      All this is really tiring. The old, old tactic of ignoring everything that has been written, and demanding unwritten things based on no data and evidence.

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    7. You made some very interesting points but it will take a long time to answer them satisfactory, as you rightly pointed out need to write a book on it!

      Now you mentioned that the core text of both the Ithihasas pre dates the Mauryan period, if that is so then howcome there is no mentioned of the Muurya or Gupta or Sisunga dynasties in it? Also there is no reference to Buddha or Jain dharma in these texts. You mentioned South Indian kings like Pandyas, Cheras, Cholas... This you have to go to the Tamil texts which speak of three sangams which are couple thousands years old. There is a reference to Chera king who as fed the army of both sides (Pandya, Kauravas). Also there evidence that are coming out that position the antiquity of Southern India (eg. Keezhadi sites)

      Coming back to the core text, which to you is the core text and which to you is a later addition? Now if you say the references to tribes like the Yavanas, Sakas and so as later addition then I will plead you to took at the amount of references of these tribes that you find in the Mahabharata.

      Here have a look:

      1. Reference for Yavanas: (40+) http://ancientvoice.wikidot.com/mbh:yavanas

      2. Reference for Saka: (30+)
      http://ancientvoice.wikidot.com/mbh:sakas

      The amount of references that you find in this texts cannot be interpolations due to the fact that they are many entries and a large distribution across many parvas (Chapters) also they clearly pre mauryan period. Now they maybe interpolations but too many references to Yavanas cannot be credited to a later date as pointed above.

      Also I will list the texts that contains the references to Yavana(s):
      - Manusmriti
      - Yājñavalkya Smṛti
      - Charaka/Shushrata saṁhitā
      - Natyasastra
      - Most Bhuddist cannon texts
      - Mudrarakshasa
      - Ramayana
      - All major Puranas
      - Mahabharata
      - Atharvaveda-Parisista
      - Pāṇini's Ashtadhyayi
      - Gautama dharma sūtra
      - Kāśyapa saṁhitā
      - Aṣṭāṅgasaṁgraha
      - Atrismṛti

      All these texts stated above are before 5th BCE according to some scholars. But many scholars date these texts after 5th BCE for the very reason that contain references to Yavanas (besides some parts of the Puranas which are indeed added later on). No doubt the Yavanas mentioned in the later do refer to the Greeks but not the earlier texts like the ones above.

      Now compare this to the Illiad: (1)
      http://takshasila.wikidot.com/ild:ionians

      As well to the Odyssey: (0)
      - Nothing to show.

      What we notice here is just one reference in the earliest Greek text and that to a passing reference. It becomes important to ask why there is hardly any reference to such a dominant tribe of Greek history in the earliest texts. This all needs answering and not blind believe of many westerners (including Indians) are saying.

      Now lets look what Greeks have written the Ionians:

      "[94] The Ionians furnished a hundred ships, and were armed LIKE the Greeks. Now these Ionians, during the time that they dwelt in the Peloponnese and inhabited the land now called Achaea....according to the Greek account..."

      - Histories, book 7.

      The word used above is 'LIKE' implying that the Hellene and the Ionians weren't the same. Also Ionians were clearly a newcomer in Greek history. I'll stop here.

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    8. Are bhai kehna kya chahte ho...sorry but I heard conversation of noth of you....and I hardly understood anything...can you pls elaborate it...so that a enthusiast like me can also understand it...and pls elaborate in Hindi if you it...

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    9. Pls elaborate in Hindi if you know i otherwise in English....and in my previous comment I wrote 'noth' in place of "both'..

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    10. @Aryan Jaiswal What do you want be to eloborate upon?

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    11. What are you guys debating abt..

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    12. I was trying to explain to Shrikant Talageri that reference to Yavanas in the ancient Indian texts cannot be fully satisfactory explained by saying that Yavanas orignally meant Greeks. This and few other thiings are totally disagree with. They are:

      1. Puja is a Sanskrit word, from the root Puj - which means to repect. A root(DHatu) cannot be a noun which Shrikant likes to argue that its from word Poo (Tamil for flower) which became Puj (DHatu). Such rubbish. Tamil word for Puja is 'Valipatu' which is still used today. Tamils used both transliterated and native for word for Sanskrit Puja. Like Tamils used sanskrit Rathiri (Transliterated) and Tamil Irava(Native word) in their every day vocabulary.

      2. Agastya - This has perfect Sanskrit etymology while Tamils enthusiast are claiming it to be Sanskrit. In fact many words are claimed by them to be orginally Tamil like Shiva, Bhagavan, Brahma etc...

      In both Tamil and Sanskrit Texts it confirms Agastya came from the North. So I don't see what Shrikant Talageri is ranting about in the recent podcast I watched of his.

      3. His dates are totally wrong, Vedveer Arya has pointed in three comprehensive books that the entire Indian chronology is based on wrong interpretation of Indian texts and inscription and this lead to a mishap in WORLD history. Unfortunately he and many other Indologist like Koenaard are too stubborn to listen.

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    13. I like Vedveer's work upto his date on mahabharata. I like Talageri's Rig Veda analysis. As for Dravidian influences, go over my comments in this blog and the last 2 blogs. Go over that of Incognito's as well.

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    14. I had a look at them! So whats your point?

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    15. If dravidian influences in Indo Aryan are found in Oranian, like the word for butter, then that could strengthen OIT as it would debunk the AIT logic that OIT is impossible as there is no Dravidian words in other IE languages. Also, if the influences found follows the pattern of Talageri' Old and New Rig Veda theory, then that is an advantage for him. More light could be shed on the Vedic and Dravidian interactions, based on the subtle linguistics.

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    16. But the word for Butter in Sanskrit is not Dravidian. There is no need for Dravidians words in IE people because the IE peoples who left Indian never came in contact with the Dravidians,

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    17. I think Raghavar Voltore should look up the meaning of the word "rant". I was in a very happy mood throughout the interview, and no-one except the biased and prejudiced will see everything they don't like as constituting a "rant".
      You are of course free to hold on to the belief that the Yavanas, Romakas, Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas referred to in the Ramayana, Mahabharata, Puranas, Manu Smriti, etc. are not Greeks, Romans or the three Great Southern Kingdoms of the Mauryan period, but separate entities, i.e. ancient north Indian tribes who existed in north India from the time of the Ramayana.

      The fact is that it is not only the Old Rigveda and the New Rigveda, but also the other three Samhitas, and also the Brahmanas, Aranyakas and the Vedic Upoanishads, which do not know all these "ancient tribes" of yours. They only appear in texts written down in or after the Mauryan period. And the "Yavanas Jataka" contains many words borrowed from Greek: jamitra, mesurana, hora from Greek diametros, mesouranema and hora. Also, although I don't have the data with me at the moment, but the "Yavana" names for the signs of the Zodiac are often Sanskritized versions of the Greek names.

      Also, the root "puj" also does not appear in the Samhitas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas and Vedic Upanishads, but in the same texts which know the Greeks, Romans and the Three Great Southern kingdoms, except for the one reference in the Rigveda by the Dravidian-named Irimbitha/Shirimbitha who also uses the other Dravidian word "kaana" derived from Tamil "kan".

      And the idea that "Agastya" is derived from Tamil is a widely accepted one: I did not invent it.

      But I know it is difficult to accept ideas which go against long-held misconceptions.

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    18. I am sorry to say this but all arguments given above is illogical and not based on facts. First of all lets look at two words which claim are clearly Dravidian: 'Kana' and 'Puja'.

      I have already pointed that Puja is NOT a dravidian word and I have given you the equivalent Dravidian word for it. In the Rigvedic hymn 8.17 the word "Sachipujanayam" is used in the sense to praise what is flowers going to do with it. In fact even if I agree that Poo is the root this does not make it Dravidian because 'Poo' is congnate to Puspa in Sanskrit and also I will include English flower ( Flo and Po ) as well.

      Kana is clearly not a Dravidian word for its found in many Sanskrit and Prakrit/Pali derivatives: Kana (Small, oblique, tiny, atom, dust, blinded, grain, hole, drop ) and its applicable in Kaniya (Smaller/Less/Younger), Kanada (Atom eater - founder of vaisheshika), Kanabha (fly), kaṇadāra (Grain/Soil).

      Therefore its meaning is clear anything thats very less or small. So person who is blinded one one eye has very little vision hence the name kana. But the word is never used in Sanskrit and Pali to mean eyes. Now the Tamil word may have derive the meaning from Pali or its a PN Oak case. Tamil word Kan has no derivatives like Sanskrit or Pali for that matter.

      Now comming to Agastya show the prove, please derive its meaning with Dravidian etymology. Not all scholars scholars agree that this word is Dravidian. In fact the famous wiki page you like citing does not mention it.

      I am not arguing that Greeks didn;t influence Indian astrology but I agruing that the term Yavana originally could not have been reference to Greeks. Its not my believe but your lack of research on the latest evidence thats out there. These tribe appear after the Mauryan period as but pre Mauryan. Vedveer as written many books on this subject not just he but many scholars have pointed out the same. The Buddha has reported to have learnt 64 scripts of those 64 Dramili and Yavani are mentioned as two scripts that Buddha has supposed to have learnt. Buddha is dated prior the Mauryan period. In you can't accept this fact then please update yourself.

      As to the reference to Rome. In the Rig veda itself you have reference to a King called Ruma. Now this word Ruma is used interchangably with Romaka/Roma. So there is a case for Romaka being in India during Vedic times. But more research needs to go in this path. In fact Ruma has pretty much the same meaning as Romaka which means Salt.

      I used the word rant to emphasis your stubborn view of Agastya being a southern rishi.

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    19. Is it Kana or Kanva? Kanva is likely the Sanskritization of "kanu" (the way Tulva is Sanskritization of Tulu). Kanu could be the accurate reconstructed word for eye in proto dravidian, and not kan. Thus a Dravidian name is now plausible.

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    20. As I said, people are free to retain their childhood ideas and to derive P N Oakish "Sanskrit" derivations, but to suggest that the only Dravidian word for "eye" is derived from the Sanskrit word "kana" = "small particle" (not found in the Vedic literature, but a later development of the Vedic "kan" = "small", without a cerebral n, as in kanishtha, etc.), and that the Rigveda had already anticipated this later development and even transformed it into "cross-eyed" (to be used only once and only by a Dravidian-named rishi, who also coincidentally is the only rishi to use other Dravidian-"like" words such as puj, khand and kunda) is really stubborn. As per your new innovative meaning for the word "rant", it is you who are "ranting" now.

      Let us stop this cross-talk, and let other people decide which version is more rational. I am genuinely tired of such pointless and foolish diversions.

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    21. Are you refering to me? I do believ kana (or kanva) is a dravidian borrowing, no doubt. Also how many times does the word kara (meaning "hand") appear in the Rig Veda? I believe it is a calque of the Proto Dravidian word for hand ("kei"). Both are derived from their respected word root of "to do". Not all Dravidian loans are direct. Some are subtle.

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    22. No, I was referring to Raghavar Voltore's insistence on trying to forcibly derive "kaana" and "puj" from Sanskrit rather than accept their clear and obvious Dravidian etymologies.

      About Kanva and kara being of Dravidian origin, I think you are pulling in the opposite direction: trying to derive Dravidian origins for Sanskrit words.

      I feel one should not have agendas of this kind, but should accept the most logical alternative in each case. That is the only way we can get a logical picture where everything falls into place.

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    23. I have no agenda. I am not a scholar, rather an amateur. For me, indology is a hobby. But it is interesting that kara (which is a unique sanskrit inivation) is compatible to Proto Dravidian hand. Honestly, people shouldn't bring Proto Dravidian into the issue until they reconstruct the language enough that they can form sentences, the same way we can speak sentences in Proto Indo European.

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    24. I didn't say kara was dravidian in origin, rather the word was valued. A plaque is when a word is loan translated and not directly borrowed. The way Indian Rashid are a loan translation of the greek zodiac and not direct borrowings.

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    25. Talageri is TOTALLY on the wrong side of this issue, Raghavar Voltore is totally right.
      Talageri's sole point is, deity worship was unknown to the Indo Europeans it was derived from foreign people, hence all the paraphernalia attached with it also should have been derived from non-Indo-Europeans / Foreigners, but that is not just a BLATANT LIE, but a preposterous lie.
      There are numerous accounts of the destruction of Pagan/Indo-European/Non-Abrahamic deities by the early Christian monks in Germany, England, and other parts of Europe written by the monks themselves.
      This just proves that Deity worship was prominent among Indo-Europeans(Germans, Gauls, etc), so is all the paraphernalia attached to it.
      E.g. Statue of Zeus at Olympia-One of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World.
      https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Statue_of_Zeus_at_Olympia#Loss_and_destruction

      Ancient Greek ὄκκον (ókkon)
      Armenian ական (akan)
      since there is "kan" in Armenian "akan" and "kon" in "ókkon" It would be foolish to say they got it from a foreign source but that is exactly what Talageri is doing here.
      If Greek "ókkon" and Armenian "akan" are cognates of PIE "akʰkon", so is Sanskrit's version.

      Now coming to कण (speck, particle, atom), it is as Indo-European as it gets.
      It has its cognate in
      - Proto-Indo-European *kón-os from *kón- (“dust, ashes”).
      - Latin cinis
      - Ancient Greek κόνις (kónis)
      So am I going to take the word of well learned, full time committed Indo-Europeanist scholars who constructed PIE, Proto-Indo-Aryan , from Proto-Indo-Iranian(all of which has cognates of the word |कण (káṇa)| )


      Delete
    26. Hold your horses, Troll Babu. If you had been writing all these BLATANT, preposterous and abusive LIES in your twitter account, they would have passed, since most of your audience would have been unaware of my writings and would have swallowed your LIES wholesale. Don't make a laughing-stock of yourself by writing these BLATANT LIES in my blog, where the readers can check what I have written!

      When have I ever written that "deity worship was unknown to the Indo Europeans, it was derived from foreign people, hence all the paraphernalia attached with it also should have been derived from non-Indo-Europeans / Foreigners"? In your opinion, only the Purus, Anus and Druhyus were "Indo-Europeans", and the rest of the people to their east and south within India were not just "non-Indo-Europeans" (which indeed the Dravidians, who contributed the bulk of our murti worship certainly were) but "foreigners"? It is from them that all the other features of Hinduism have been derived. And your "Only Indo-Europeans" (the Purus, Anus and Druhyus) indeed did not worship idols: the Rigveda, Avesta and Druidic and revived Lithuanian religions are testimony to that. The Rigveda even condemns the "shishnadeva", worshippers of the linga, to their east.

      Incidentally, I don't think the origins of idol-worship were the point of dispute between Voltore and myself. Please read before you leap into the fray with your LIES. The points of dispute were about whether or not words like kaana, puj and agastya were Dravidian. Please take the word of most "full time committed Indo-Europeanist scholars" in this respect.

      Delete
    27. From your aggressive rant, I learned that Germans, Ukrainians, Greeks (who left Indus Valley and who were inhabiting the northernmost regions), and other IE groups who are much farther away from India, got their deity worship from some foreigners.

      As per your own writing Dryuhu who was the European branch (Germans, Celts, Italic) already left in preRigVedic times. still somehow according to you German's (Saxons in Britain) got their deity worship from foreigners.

      Wow, thanks for enlightening me about the fact that the mastermind behind Zeus at Olympia( Seven Wonders of the Ancient World) were not really Greeks nor it was their tradition but some foreigners from whom Greeks derived the idea of a deity.





      I have been following your work, I have been agreeing with the majority of the writing especially the comparative study of the Avesta, Mitanni, and RigVeda to prove Avesta and Mitanni are older than RigVeda, (as a matter of fact, I even agree with the article on this page about the Parasu being a tribe named Persian, not an axe) but not until recently I commented regarding the continuation of culture from Indus Valley to Iranian and Macedonia based on Fillet or ribbon headband which totally corroborates with your writings that Alina (Hellene = Greeks) and Parthians were the final branches to move from their homeland,

      https://imgur.com/a/yyVt1Rx

      https://imgur.com/a/rTfMuZe

      Till then you have no problems with my comments and opinions, but once when I respectfully made a comment contradicting your opinion backed by all the necessary evidence, you completely lost it and started ranting.

      All of the words you mentioned are Indo-European I have already quoted from Edwin Bryant and Laurie Patton (2005) somewhere on your site.

      Delete
    28. From your aggressive rant, I learned that Germans, Ukrainians, Greeks (who left Indus Valley and who were inhabiting the northernmost regions), and other IE groups who are much farther away from India, got their deity worship from some foreigners.

      As per your own writing Dryuhu who was the European branch (Germans, Celts, Italic) already left in preRigVedic times. still somehow according to you German's (Saxons in Britain) got their deity worship from foreigners.

      Wow, thanks for enlightening me about the fact that the mastermind behind Zeus at Olympia( Seven Wonders of the Ancient World) were not really Greeks nor it was their tradition but some foreigners from whom Greeks derived the idea of a deity.





      I have been following your work, I have been agreeing with the majority of the writing especially the comparative study of the Avesta, Mitanni, and RigVeda to prove Avesta and Mitanni are older than RigVeda, (as a matter of fact, I even agree with the article on this page about the Parasu being a tribe named Persian, not an axe) but not until recently I commented regarding the continuation of culture from Indus Valley to Iranian and Macedonia based on Fillet or ribbon headband which totally corroborates with your writings that Alina (Hellene = Greeks) and Parthians were the final branches to move from their homeland,

      https://imgur.com/a/yyVt1Rx

      https://imgur.com/a/rTfMuZe

      Till then you have no problems with my comments and opinions, but once when I respectfully made a comment contradicting your opinion backed by all the necessary evidence, you completely lost it and started ranting.

      All of the words you mentioned are Indo-European I have already quoted from Edwin Bryant and Laurie Patton (2005) and J. A. B. van Buitenen somewhere on your site.

      Delete
    29. I too noticed that you even mentioned a new term "kunda" and "khand" as being Non-Indo European.

      both of them are perfect Indo-European words since cognates are available in other Indo-European languages such as French, Middle English and Persian

      Delete
    30. Troll Babu, you are now free to do as much ranting as you want on my blog. I assure you I will not bother to reply to a single rant from now on.

      Delete
    31. "|I have been following your work, I have been agreeing with the majority of the writing especially the comparative study of the Avesta, Mitanni, and RigVeda to prove Avesta and Mitanni are older than RigVeda, (as a matter of fact, I even agree with the article on this page about the Parasu being a tribe named Persian, not an axe)"
      I meant to write Avesta and Mitanni are YOUNGER than RigVeda

      Delete
    32. "Troll Babu, you are now free to do as much ranting as you want on my blog. I assure you I will not bother to reply to a single rant from now on."

      Congrats for letting me and others know that you can't take the slightest criticism even when it is being respectfully submitted, thus revealing your arrogance even when a direct cognate is being provided such as this
      कण (speck, particle, atom), it is as Indo-European as it gets.
      It has its cognate in
      - Proto-Indo-European *kón-os from *kón- (“dust, ashes”).
      - Latin cinis (cold ashes, (figurative) ruins of a burned city)
      - Ancient Greek κόνις (kónis) (dust (figurative), ashes, the powder sprinkled upon wrestlers)



      This hunting for foreign words was initiated by F.B.J. Kuiper (1991), many scholars already refuted it such as Rahul Peter Das.

      Delete
    33. People visiting this site can witness for themselves (unless you decide to delete) who was the first one to use the word "Troll".

      Delete
    34. I also have another question sir.....Some linguistics like Southwood claims that the term....Sindhu is derived from Proto Dravidian word "cittu"...which means date palm which is found commonly there ...and it was in classical Sanskrit when the word Sindhu become to known as river...what's your take on this

      Delete
    35. And also sir many talks abt the substratum in Sanskrit language and retroflex....like it said that the retroflex phenomena of Dravidian languages are found in Vedic Sanskrit and not even in Mittani...an Indo Aryan language...impleirs that Sanskrit came from outside ....many says abt the substratum in Sanskrit of Dravidian and Munda words....I'm seriously very confused on this...want to known a conclusive answer...and also it is found that majority of substratum is from an unknown language. ...

      Delete
    36. Talageri points out that language age should be based on word use, not pronunciation. The retroflex may be a result of later recitations of the text. After all no one is perfect. I hope this helps.

      Delete
    37. As I said, we need not deal seriously with people who try to derive agenda-based etymologies, whether on the side of Sanskrit or Dravidian. The example you (Aryan Jaiswal) give of Southworth is one such far-fetched example: "Sindhu" from "cittu". Please note that in the three Oldest Books 6,3,7, the word means only "river". It is more often used in the plural, meaning "rivers", and in the few contexts where it is in the singular, the particular river it refers to is also clear from the reference (Yamuna, etc.). It has a clear Indo-European etymology.

      About the cerebrals/retroflexes, I have dealt with this right from my first book. There is no evidence at all that it is a Dravidian sound:

      1. The Vedic language has a cerebral sound "lh" not found in any other language, and Burushaski to its north has some more, none of them found in Dravidian.

      2. Dravidian words cannot begin with cerebral sounds. But countless Indo-Aryan words do. This shows that thse sounds cannot have been originally Dravidian: usually people find it difficult to pronounce originally unfamiliar sounds (many rural people pronouncing "school" as "ischool" or "stri" as "istri").

      3. The ultimate test: should the IE languages, if they originated in India have preserved cerebral sounds (and Dravidian loan-words), and if they do not, does this prove that they did not go out from India? Well, no-one denies that Romany, the language of the gypsies, went out from India just over a thousand years ago, but they have no cerebral sounds or Dravidian loans. So why should languages going out from the further northwest of India before 2000 BCE have preserved cerebral sounds?

      And this rubbish about "unknown language substratum". The list of such words ("BMAC words") provided by Witzel and others are found only in the New Books or in post-Rigvedic texts, after the Purus expanded westwards!

      Delete
    38. Thank you sir for clearing my doubts...

      Delete
    39. "The list of such words ("BMAC words") provided by Witzel "

      Talageri Ji, in the below-given link the Russian Linguistic Igor A Tonoyan-Belyaye refutes the BMAC substratum theory.

      https://www.academia.edu/33042091/An_alternative_vision_of_the_A_Lubotskys_list_of_Bactro_Margianisms_

      Delete
    40. @Aryan Jaiswal
      The most eminent scholar Witzel ( although he is a staunch believer in AIT) rejects the idea that Harrpaan was Dravidian, the reason is the Oldest layer of Rig Veda does not show any Non-Indo-European influence, Witzel rather proposes some unknow language 'X' or Paramunda.

      Delete
    41. @Raghavar Voltore,

      You might be onto something useful with your suggestion that "Yavana" might mean more than just the Alexandrian Greeks. However, the faith you seem to be putting on Vedveer Arya has certainly gone overboard! Most of his "theories" are mere speculations, with little or no evidence to back them up. For instance, he dates the Mahabharat war solely on the basis of the Aihole inscription, and that's not smart by any means. Similarly, he cherry-picks astronomical references to suit his dates. All his claims about how the term "yuga" being misinterpreted by the updaters of the Puranas are purely "theoretical", and yet he seeks to draw "revolutionary" conclusions from them. His claim about the 9000 BCE submerged city being Krishna's Dwarka, who, however, is not Mahabharata's Krishna, is laughably speculative! With the sole exception of perhaps an earlier Saka Era which might have been used in some inscriptions/works (although we strictly don't know which ones), Vedveer Arya has just theories, and no evidence, to offer.

      Delete
    42. You are right in that Vedveer Arya's dates are too old. For example he misrepresents the Krttikas starting the year ad krttika nakshatra being the start of winter solstice when Vernal equinox is the better time. But Mahabharata date is somewhat basis than other theories. The only reason a late 4th millennium date range was chosen was it explains the Gupta Samvat epoch. He point by point explains why the guptas are wrongly dated 600 years later. I have verified the Solar Eclipse evidence from catalogue he uses to find the date of the older Osaka Era and the proper Gupta Samvat. A date of 335 BCE for the Guptas reconciles with the Puranic list for POST Mahabharata kings. Also to be fair he does clear up the doubt of Arundhati walking ahead of Vasishta which Nilesh Oak misrepresented.

      Delete
    43. @Abhishek Anand

      We might find the dates suggested by Vedveer ji from Manu to Mahabharata a little overwhelming but I don't thing this is the case for the period from Mahabharata to Medieval Era. This accroding to be is solid and he has backed up his findings with lots of epigraphical, inscriptional and texual sources. I suggesting to you his to read his works(Books) in detail. As for the period prior to the Mahabharata I have no way to verify it or rather I am still a little doubtful of his dates, nonetheless I still mostly agree with him.

      What date would you place the Mahabharat war in, lets start here?

      Delete
    44. @Raghavar Voltore

      What "evidence" does he offer for his Mahabharat dates, other than blind reliance on the Aihole inscription and cherry-picked astronomy references which fit that date? Can you please list few of those "lots of epigraphical, inscriptional and textual sources". His pre-Mahabharat chronology is entirely speculative.

      Delete
    45. I will take this one. The epigraphiphic and inscriptions are evidence for an Saka Era and an older Gupta Samvat only. You need to work backwards from them to establish the time frame for Mahabharata. If there is consistency with Puranic King lists, the relevant inscription, astronomy, then transatively Mahabharata's 3100 bce time frame is supported, not the exact date.

      This link shows a summary of the inscriptional evidence.

      http://indiafacts.org/epoch-saka-era-critical-study/

      Delete
    46. @Abhishek Anand

      His not the only who has found major discrepancies of the Mahabharata to the medieval period. Many Western and Indian scholars have worked on this before. In particular the two Saka era is not something that he came up with out of the blue but has already been contemplated upon by scholars more than half a century ago.

      I request you to please read the book "The Sakas in India" by Satya Shrava:

      "https://www.scribd.com/document/378538264/The-Sakas-in-India

      Also a book by Kota Venkatachelam.

      The two Saka eras are crucial in dating the MB in which the Aihole inscription supports his findings. And he is not cherry-picking his evidence but pretty much in keeping with the whole host scholars prior to him. He manage to solve many of the already existing confusion in dating books/persons though many of his findings was already done by some of his predecessors, he went beyond it by correcting world chronology. His latest book "The Origin of the Christian Era: Fact or Fiction " is a game changer.

      Delete
  2. Brilliant article Talahati jee .

    Sir can you enlighten us about Austric language family and how do we have Austric language family speakers in india ?

    ReplyDelete
  3. Sir in analysis of rig veda which translation you prefer because there is swami dayanand translation of rig veda which is very systematic and there is griffith translation which is very unsystematic

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. There is no fixed rule. For example, the name Kavi Cayamana is correctly translated as a name by Wilson, but not by most other translators. Ludwig is the only one who points out that VII.83.1 refers to Prithus and Parshus. Geldner is the only one who consistently recognizes that ibha means elephant and mahisha means buffalo, while most other translators play around with different meanings.

      About Swami Dayananda Sarasvati and Griffith, I am sorry to say (and I will always speak the truth however it may be received) it is exactly the opposite case.

      Yes, Griffith does look at the Rigveda through the AIT eyes and mistranslates or misunderstands countless things because of that, but he does not have a deliberate agenda of falsification. But Arya Samaj translations have a deliberate agenda of falsifying Vedic translations to further their prejudices (borrowed from Christianity). I don't know if Swami Dayanand Sarasvati has actually translated the Rigveda, but his book "Rigvedadi Bhashya Bhumika" clearly means "Agenda for translating the Rigveda, etc.". So most Arya Samaj translations of Vedic texts are exercises in translating to a set agenda to hide or blank out historical and geographical references, etc. Read any Arya Samaj translation of hymn VII.18, the Dasarajna battle hymn: it has been (in one version I read) converted into a sermon on the duties of an ideal king!

      On the other hand, despite countless mistakes and mistranslations, Griffith's translation is generally the basic one to check. Of course, for any particular reference, check all other translations as well (Geldner, Grassman, Wison, Jamison, etc.).

      The great thing about Griffith's translation is that in cases where other earlier translators differ, he mentions this in his footnotes.

      Delete
  4. I'd actually replied to TrueIndology quoting you. He asked me to cite a single verse in all of Vedic literature which writes it as Parasurama instead of Parsurama. Of course, I didn't have the conceptual clarity this article provides.

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. Please refer this site, it would clarify.
      https://paleoglot.blogspot.com/2009/12/battling-indo-european-axe.html

      Delete
  5. Great piece Shrikant ji,
    I must admit you are one of the few truth loving Indian historian.While 95% Indic historians are just bhakta sort of.According to them whatsoever exist in this universe has just wombed out of Vedas.
    Best of luck...🙏🙏🙏

    ReplyDelete
  6. Indus deciphering could shed light. How ever those who go for a Dravidian hypothesis don't even focus on Proto Dravidian. They use Tamil as a proxy. If they want a Dravidian hypothesis, they must reconstruct the proto Dravidian such that they can write full sentences, just like PIE.

    ReplyDelete
  7. This comment has been removed by the author.

    ReplyDelete
  8. Is Gita press translation of Rig Veda Authentic?

    ReplyDelete
  9. Namaster Talageri Ji,
    I have a doubt,
    Given the fact that both Sanskrit and English belong to the Indo-European family.
    Is English "CUT" is a cognate of Sanskrit "Kuṭṭ (कुट्ट्)",
    incidentally even Sanskrit "Kuṭṭ (कुट्ट्)" means " To cut".
    https://www.wisdomlib.org/definition/kutt
    I welcome anyone to clear my doubt.

    ReplyDelete
  10. What is your argument regarding mittani having devavat or devatithi on inscription. I was reading the comments on Academia.edu and I cant comprehend both sides due to the harsh language. But it would be a pleasure to hear you argument.

    ReplyDelete
  11. As you say you have read the above comments in academia. Look at the list of Rigvedic names with -atithi, Avestan names with -ashti, and Mitanni names with -atti. These names (alongwith countless other names and words, as you should be aware if you have read anything written by me) are found only in the latest parts of the Rigveda.
    Fournet, 11 years ago,ignored the huge mass of evidence, and in a private mail, wrote that one word Deuwatti is the Old name Devavat and not the name Devatithi.
    All this showed his ignorance and stupidity in two ways:
    1. Deuwatti is part of a group of "-atithi" names in the Mitanni lists. Scores of scholars have identified them as such. His denial of one name does not change the picture, it only serves as a diversion to deflect attention from the logical conclusion to be derived from the presence of these very late Rigvedic name-types among the Mitanni.
    2. Devavat is an Old name, and (even if we assume Deuwatti referred to Devavat) as such it could have been taken out by Mitanni migrants in a late period. So it does not prove or disprove anything. But -atithi names are very late and New name-types (along with so many others) and could not have been taken to West Asia by pre-Rigvedic migrants. So the evidence of the -atithi names as a whole proves my case for an emigration of the proto-Mitanni from India in the New Rigvedic period.
    The liar now denies he ever connected the word to Devavat. And then (see his subsequent comment) proceeds to do so again!

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. What about 'Mana', who you argue as a Babylonian word ?

      Delete
    2. I don't "argue" that mana is a Babylonian word. This word, along with the word bekanata, has long been classified as Babylonian by many Indologists, including Hopkins. Like many of the words classified as Dravidian, they actually fit into the total picture of the OIT and the chronology of the RIgveda and the Harappan civilization. I have never believed in opposing the traditional "western" Indologists for the sake of opposing them. Many of them, particularly Griffith, were very sincere in their work, and even if they are wrong thousands of times, they are not wrong out of some evil agenda: they are wrong because they are wearing the "AIT" glasses and therefore naturally (but not necessarily maliciously) misinterpret things. In contrast, most modern interpreters of the Rigveda, from both the AIT and OIT sides, are politically motivated and have agendas for which they are willing to deliberately distort things.
      Towards the end of his introduction, Griffith writes about Indians who may object to his translations, that he and many other western scholars have spent "half their lives" studying the Rigveda, and "do not claim infallibility, completeness or finality for the results to which their researches have led them", and that Indians dissatisfied with their interpretations should at least give them "credit for deep devotion to ancient Indian literature and due admiration of the great Indian scholars who have expounded it, and will acknowledge that these modern scholars - however mistaken their views may appear to be - are labouring sincerely and solely to declare the spirits and the truth of the most ancient and venerated literary records that are the heritage of Aryan man".
      So, it does not matter whether a scholar is right or wrong. What is important is that he should be sincere, and not persist in pursuing something which is logically and factually proved wrong.

      Delete
    3. But I am not convinced by the Western scholars that Mana is related to Mina (Unit Measurement) used by the Middle Easterners. I still wait for more proof. If fact I do not did find any verse in the RIg veda to translate this as only meanig a unit measurement. Please be careful in accepting what the Western scholars say in this matter. If fact this word as word many derivatives in Sanskrit Manu (Man), Manas (Mind), Mana (Thoughts/Intellect,Measure).

      As for bekanata, this word MAYBE a foreign word, but again still not convinced to accept the Western scholarly view.

      Delete
  12. Amazing how some Hindus disparage a uniquely meritorious scholar like Doctor Honoris Causa Shrikant Talageri. Compare this to how the secularists operate. Richard Eaton launched the idea that Muslim iconoclast had it from Hindu precedent. Immediately this line of argument was borrowed by Romila Thapar, Audrey Truschke, Frontline and the rest. Some Frontline editor (if memory serves) launched the claim that Savarkar was a today of the British, and soon this was a classic in all anti-Hindutva writing. By contrast, Hindu hotheads are petty, their arguments are extremely personalized, theydon't score points against the enemy camp but try to score against fellow Hindus.Contemptible.

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. You are right, sir, unfortunately. The Indian camp seems to be running in 10 different directions at once. I am shocked that so many prominent Indic-view proponents rarely, if ever, quote Talageri or his valid arguments. In fact, I was saddened to see Rajiv Malhotra adopt the apaurusheya argument instead of understanding the landscape and battleground- which he should as an Intellectual Kshatriya!

      Unfortunately, Hindu hotheads are just that. On Twitter I've been shamed and disgusted by the vitriol you too receive, and it makes me embarassed.

      Delete
    2. To add. I met today a few Vedic scholars to clarify a few of my own doubts and learn what the "traditional" view is.

      Specifically I wanted their take on the conflict between apaurusheya Veda on one hand and anukramani attributions on the other. I wanted to know what they think of the historicity of a Bharadvaja or a Vamadeva.

      I was very disheartened. In no time I was being told of the age of Rama 900,000 years ago. And when I pointed out that this is many years before human evolution itself, they took supreme offence and refused to engage me any further.

      In fact they essentially confirmed what you, Koenraad sir, accuse us Hindus of- that we bury our head in the sands and don't even care what the mainstream discourse is. Needless to say, they had no idea nor cared about Talageri's work. It sufficed for them to say AIT is a myth and elaborate no further.

      Delete
  13. Talageri sir, I want to ask when iron is mentioned first in Vedic literature and how. I know that that the Rig Veda precedes the Iron age ind India, but at what part does iron become recognisable in the Vedic texts following Rig Veda? Also note that Iron is old as 1800 BCE in India. Iron artifacts as old as 2400 BCE have been found in Telangana.

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. I think iron becomes recognisable as krishna ayas, or black metal, in the Yajur Veda.

      Meteoric iron has been found in Harappa also from 2600 BC. But I think the point is that iron really became familiar to Vedic people after they encountered true iron metallurgy, which happened by Yajur Veda.

      Using OIT timelines, Yajur Veda should be somewhere between 2200-1800 BC. So it adds up to general archaeology that krishna ayas appears by this time.

      Delete
  14. Edit: In some reconstructions of Proto Dravidian, words for various metals were named after their color. "Cir-umpu" was iron for it was "ciru" or black. Silver was "Wel-nt" for it was "wel" or white. Gold was "Pac-Vnt" for it was "pac" or yellow. Copper is "cempu" in Proto South Dravidian, and I believe is likely in turn from Proto Dravidian "Kempu" from "kem" meaning red. Evidently the late Vedic texts use words like "shyama ayas" or "lohita", they refer to iron and copper respectively, both meaning "black metal" and "red one" respectively. With the exeption of gold and silver which the PIE people definitely knew of, I believe that there is Dravidian influence as to the origin of copper and Iron in India.

    ReplyDelete
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    ReplyDelete
  16. Talageri Ji.
    Is the English word "scathe" which means "harm; injure."
    is a cognate of the sanskrit word "Skanda (स्कन्द)" which means "Perishing, destruction." ? Please reply.

    ReplyDelete
  17. Miss Shrikant Talageri, why doesn't the Avestans refer to the Aila dynasty if supposed to have descendend from them. Do the Persians mentioned Nahusa has their ancestors?

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. Vedic evidence doesn't necessarily claim Avestans to be Ailas. Aila is found in the Satapatha Brahmana as the patronymic of Pururavas.

      Besides, there is already a great gap between Pururava and the Rig Vedic/Avestan people. Let alone Pururavas, even figures such as Bharata and Mandhatra appear deeply ancient and even mythological. Aila is a late-Puranic clubbing, and as such does not appear in the Vedas or Avesta.

      Vedic evidence suggests the panca-jana to be a kind of tribal conglomerate, but nothing in it claims them to be descended from a common ancestor. This is a Puranic addition. Avestans, taking Vedic evidence, descend from Anavas and Sivi Ushinara. Thus we find Aosnara in the Avesta.

      And hehe your typo :)
      Talageri sir is no miss!

      Delete
  18. Talageri Sir,

    I'd read somewhere, but forget the source now, so turning to you for confirmation/info.

    Are there any references, vague or otherwise, to writing or to script in the Rig Veda? Maybe the occurence of a word or two that suggests writing/scripts were not entirely unknown to Rig Vedic people? I'd once read this somewhere but never saved the link or verified it.

    ReplyDelete
  19. Hi Shrikant ji, please go through this article in which the author discusses that the word Samudra cannot mean sea:

    http://www.clarkriley.com/JIES3834web/12Thomson(422-430).pdf

    What your thoughts on this work.

    ReplyDelete
  20. It does matter I got the answer from here:

    http://www.asiainstitutetorino.it/indologica/volumes/vol41_42/IT_41_42_04_LEVITT.pdf

    None the less I still want your opionion.

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  21. Hello Talageri Sir,
    I know that 200 years of Linguistic scholarship is based on the foundation laid by Hermann Oldenberg, who is unanimously considered as authoritative by yourself and others such as Witzel etc.
    Also having read all your works, I know that you take Oldenberg‘s classification of the hymns as something authoritative, and legitimate.
    But I recently came across an article written by Subhash Kak named "The Big Scandal of Indology", in this article I came across a disturbing passage about Hermann Oldenberg's attitude towards Vedas.

    "Hermann Oldenberg, a 19th century leader of academic Indology, said that Indians are under the tyranny of “the misshapen, wild, cruel, [and] lascivious Hindu Gods, at their head Shiva and Vishnu.” The Indologists saw themselves as revolutionaries who want to save the Hindus quite in the same spirit as the Christian missionaries and the Tablighi Jamaat want to save Hindus."
    Subhash Kak(https://subhashkak.medium.com/the-big-scandal-of-indology-2994f178f0d9)

    So it is pretty obvious that Oldenberg's approach was biased with pre-conceived notions, now the real question is should we consider his scholarship seriously?

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    1. 1. To begin with, judging a scholarly principle or artistic work should be on its scholarly or artistic merits or demerits, not on the personality, prejudices or actions of the scholar or artist. Even a serial killer and rapist is right when he says 2+2=4, and a saint is wrong when he says 2+2=5. Taking personal motives, ideologies and actions into consideration rather than judging on the basis of data, evidence and facts is not my way of doing things. I get plenty of such labels from my critics myself, who judge my work on the basis of what they decide is my ideology rather than on considering the evidence that I put forward.

      2. I introduced Oldenberg's classification (actually Bergaigne's classification) of Ordered Hymns into the picture only in my third book in 2008. Before that I did not know about his works (which are in German) and my classification of the Rigvedic books into chronological eras, in my second book in 2000, was on the basis of different criteria described by me, and has no connection with Oldenberg's work.

      Delete
    2. Thanks for replying Sir, I agree with you.
      Even though Witzel was clearly motivated in his works to prove the Invasion, He pointed out a few truth and facts such as the identification of Sarasvatī (WITZEL 1995b:318); Ganges (WITZEL 2000a:§6 , Of course, he changed and amended his own writings after you pointed out in your 2000 Book, that is a separate issue, but we can deny the fact that in spite of vested interest he wrote the some truth.

      Also, I am obliged to inform you that I recently came across an Indo-European subject-related book named " The Indo-European Controversy: Facts and Fallacies in Historical Linguistics (Cambridge University Press, 2015)", penned by Asya Pereltsvaig. On page 184, she writes the Indo-Aryan doesn't have the cognate for the reconstructed PIE *mori, but you pointed out in your article"The Proto-Indo-European Word for "Sea/Ocean" that there is indeed an Indo-Aryan word for "sea" derived from the original word *móri: it is the word mīra (pronounced, incidentally, much like the German word meer).



      It is given in Pāṇini's Uṇādi-Sūtras, which are a supplement to the Aṣṭādhyāyī and contains words that the Paninian rules cannot derive.



      I hope you can convey this to the author of the book.

      Thank You

      Delete
  22. The thing is while it is true that india has contact with the Indian Ocean. The steppes have the Caspian sea and black sea. What this word *mori should prove is that Samudra, in respect to Saraswati river, refers to the sea and not just "a gathering of waters".

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  23. I started reading your works I notice you only have looked at the Avestan and Mittani data but what about the hittite data. I I think your Out-of-India Theory falls short, you have not analyzed hittite data in the same manner as the Mittani data.
    Your obession with only focusing on Avestans and Mittani has not us the readers a comprehensive understanding or proof for the OIT. For example I am still confused on which period does the hittite data fit into the Rig Vedic data or if they fit at all?

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    1. If I do everything, then what will be left for a brilliant scholar like you to do? I am waiting for your book on the connection between the Rigveda and the Hittites which will leave no question unanswered. If there is no data available to answer any question, I am sure you will be able to manufacture data out of thin air to answer it so that your readers will not be left hanging in the air with no comprehensive understanding or proof for the OIT, as my writings have left them.

      I wrote my first book in 1993, and my "obsession with only focusing on Avestans and Mitanni" started with my book in 2008. I wonder what I was obsessed with for the first 15 years of my writings.

      The Hittites must obviously have left India in a very much pre-Rigvedic era (as also the Tocharians). They were however in Central Asia long enough for the concept of Indra (Hittite Inara) to have entered their mythology, and for their remnants to be referred to in traditional history as "uttara-madra" (along with the still extant Tocharians or "uttara-kurus"). Beyond that, I await your comparative analysis of the Vedic-Hittite data.

      Delete
    2. Trying to be funny? I'll take it as a joke. I never claim that I am a scholar nor I intent to write such a book. You are superior to me in your knowledge and elder to me in age. Your works is suffient to debunk the Aryan Invasion/Migration theory. But according to me and many others you have not provided complete evidencefor the OIT. If your name your books with 'FINAL EVIDENCE' what that suppose to mean Mr Shrikant ji? It implies that your providing the complete evidence for your OIT proposal. If you going write a book on the OIT shouldn't you provide all the evidence necessary the convince the reader and not ask the reader to fill in the missing gaps. I am not the only one who is not convinced, even Kushal_Mehra, the guy who should know, believes the same. The important piece for the OIT is the Hittite data, since its classified the oldest IE language. Now if you claim thats its pre-Vedic then I will find it easy to assume that the language orignated somewhere outside India then inside as the Hittite date shares achaic features as compared to Sanskrit which could not orignated in India in the same period or prior to it.

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    3. I am not trying to be funny, nor is it a joke. "final Evidence" simply means "final evidence". It means that it proves the OIT finally. It does not mean that every single point on the subject is answered, because you can only answer points for which there is data. Tomorrow another new IE branch may be discovered somewhere in archaeological excavations, on which no data is available at all. If there are missing gaps in the data, then there are missing gaps in the data: you cannot manufacture fake evidence out of thin air to "convince the reader". As I said, that is not my method.

      And I am fed up of every pedestrian Tom, Dick and Harry, raising silly points and saying my OIT is unconvincing because it does not answer that silly point. If the alternate theory (the AIT) does not answer all the valid points while my OIT does, it stands proven. And if the person thinks he has a crystal ball which will give him all the answers even in the absence of data, then he should produce a book to prove his point instead of doing armchair heckling.

      I don't know how you decided Kushal Mehra is the "guy who should know" (more on the subject than me) and that he is not convinced. I would prefer him to tell me so than that you should do his mind-reading and act as his spokesperson.

      Are you making the idiotic suggestion that Hittite originated in a different area from the other IE branches, and that the Vedic-Puranic descriptions,
      the word Inara=Indra (not found anywhere else except in the Rigveda, Avesta and Mitanni) and the mongoloid features of the Hittites in Egyptian sculptures (showing that they came from Central Asia) are inadequate evidence for fitting Hittite in the OIT scenario, and that till a Hittite inscription is found saying "we came from India", my OIT theory stands "inconclusive"? That is what I call heckling and trolling by people who have no ability to do original research themselves.

      Delete
    4. Inara=Indra, I don't see any to support of this statement. Here you go again with your PN Oaks claim. Inara in hittite tradition is a Goddess and has no resemblence to Indra. I never stated Kushal Mehra knows more than you, but he does not fully accept your OIT proposal. You only limited yourself with the Avestan and Mittani data, you can't draw a OIT model out of it. The best you can claim is an Indian homeland of the Indo-Iranians rest is just too scanty to decide the entire picture. And yes do have data for Hittites and the Greeks to understand their PIE roots. But you have not used them. Claiming Drahyus are Druids and Alinas are Helene without enough data to back your claim with not prove anyrhing for OIT side. Let me make it clear again you ONLY have proofed your case for the Indo-Iranian homeland but not the others.

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    5. And I not going to speculate I rather neither accept AIT nor OIT only exception with be the Iranians based on your data analysis.

      Delete
    6. I am sure Talageri has an answer. Otherwise AIT will say PIE people came directly to India via Kashmir, and become the Indo Iranians. Then will say that Iranians came from India and that is the end of story. Thus they will explain away his theory. Talageri is aware of this though. Infact he wrote a paper on this issue.

      Delete
    7. Brilliant, as I said!! Inara is a Goddess and Indra a God spo they cannot be connected, although the only myth about Inara is the killing of the serpent who stopped the rainfall!! So Sarama (female dog) and Hermes (male) cannot be connected either, and all the Indologists who connected the two are wrong!!

      Soon you will make the brilliant discovery that Sanskrit "asmi, asi, asti" and Russian "esmi, esi, esti" cannot be connected, since Sanskrit has "a" and Russian has "e"!! You see now why you should write a book? Such brilliance cannot be wasted.

      Since the Mitanni must have left India long before 2000 BCE and the New Books are therefore pre-2000 BCE, and the Old Books (which have a purely eastern geography, purely Indo-Aryan river names, and no memory of migrations from the west) must go much further back in time, so the combined Vedic-Avestan-Mitanni ancestors in Haryana-Punjab must have been there in that area long before 2500 BCE. But since the other IE branches did not migrate from India, then these Vedic-Avestan-Mitanni ancestors must have come from the Steppes long before 2500 BCE, and so you will now discover that the linguistic studies which prove that all the 12 branches were in and around the Homeland till around 3000 BCE are wrong. You will prove that they must have started separating from each other in the Steppes, hundreds or thousands of years earlier, and the dates of the invention of wheeled carts must also be thousands of years earlier than claimed by archaeologists and other scientists! Brilliant would be an understatement.

      Meanwhile I will try to control my bitter sorrow that you have not accepted the OIT. I will also stop replying to your objections, since after I have answered ten objections, you will again go back to the first one and start the chain again. This kind of dialogue is what is called "vaudeville cross-talk". I cannot match your brilliance and persistence in this kind of dialogue.

      Delete
    8. Inara is goddess of the wild, she said to be a daughter of the thunder god Teshub/Tarhunt. There is a god called Innara which is associated with the woods and fields. Teshub may have resemblence to Indra but the case for Inara and Innara is certainly lacking. I objected to your linquistic identification and not the mythology that comes with it. If Inara=Indra then what about Innara?

      I am not so silly to reject the resemblence of Sanskrit "asmi, asi, asti" and Russian "esmi, esi, esti".

      I totally agree with your Indo-Mittani-Iranian homeland but not the rest since we don;t have much data to go by.

      If thats the case then Yavanas and Sakas should be placed in India according to your logic, since they are also Indo-Europeans but you don't claim so. Then why should we do the same for the Hittites and Celts and Russians? Druids = Druhyus is the same as saying Danavas = Danann of the Irish and the Greeks. You see your inconsistency!!! You then say Madras = Medians but not other PN Oaks Puranic claims. Who are you trying to fool!!! How am I supposed to convince myself or others if questioned? I accept your Iranian homeland theory with is part of the OIT but not entirely.

      But here again I find some strange you do, the Sythians are Iranians and in the Western PIE model, the Sythians are placed in Steppe homeland but in your OIT proposal you don't even consider them, in fact they are supposed to have originated somewhere outside the so called Indian homeland. WHat are you even proposing in the first place?

      Delete
  24. Sir,

    Using your OIT model, and Tonoyan-Belyayev's periodisation of Mature Harappan and Ṛg Vedic, I assess the Dāśarājña hymns in a new light. My thesis is that they chronicle the establishment of Bharata supremacy in Mature Harappa and the emergence of proto-Bhāratavarṣa. Of course, this builds atop your work.

    Like other things I've shared with you, you might not agree with everything here, but I'm sure you will find this an interesting read:


    https://www.academia.edu/44619611/A_New_Reading_of_the_D%C4%81%C5%9Bar%C4%81j%C3%B1a_or_Battle_of_Ten_Kings_in_the_%E1%B9%9Ag_Veda?source=swp_share

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    1. Their article is well written as scene by me. It's not always I see another scholar publish work endorsing Talageri's theory. I thought the Saraswati dried up around 2500 bce, not 1900 bce.this is according to recent geographic studies. Also read Vedveer Aryas work. He relies primarily on the use of inscriptions to prove ancient dates. He is the only reason I hold onto a 3100 bce date for Mbh war.

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    2. Thank you. I am no scholar, I am a layman. And I do not endorse Talageri's work but follow it, under its guidance.
      For 1900 BC, I'm using a broad consensus and concede it needs better investigation. For Vedveer Arya, the cascading effects of his model are so many that I'd rather wait for a general consensus around it to emerge than to fit other models to it. As a layman, I try to find the best-fit between works of actual scholars, but I could be wrong.

      Delete
    3. It was a okay paper, your dates are not quite correct. You miss talking about the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad vamsa list. Too much relience on Western interpretation of Indian history. 2500 BCE is too young for the date of the Rig Veda or Sudas himself.

      Delete
  25. Hey there, I’m John. I’m a software engineer living in City Centre, Sunderland SR1 3AP, UK.You can visit my company website with a click on the button above.
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    ReplyDelete
  26. This is a personal question sir, do you listen to qawwali or sufi songs?

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. Not the new-fangled "sufi" songs, but I have a full collection of old film songs (Hindi and Marathi, including bhavgeets, haktigeets and natyasangeetj) on my computer, and, if you check my youtube channel, you will see that I was the first to upload two rather Muslim filmi qawalis, "Madinewalese Mera Salam Keh dena" and "Bigadi Hui Bana De, Ajmerwale Khwaja", not of course from a religious viewpoint.

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    2. When did I say I was an atheist? What I meant was that I put up the Muslim naat qawalis from a musical point of view and not a religious point of view (since I obviously do not believe in Islamic theology).

      In any case the classification of "theist" and "atheist" is wrong. A theist is one who believes in a creator god who maintains the universe and who helps, rewards and punishes human beings for their actions. An atheist is one who rejects and opposes this idea. But you cannot classify humanity on the basis of one out of thousands of specific beliefs, in this case a belief in a personal "God".

      The Indian classification is based on a basic fact of life: existence and death. Is there any existence after death? The astik definitely believes there is some kind of existence after death (and this can include any kind of belief, whether or not in involves a God, or many gods, or some kind of a heaven or a hell, or a mechanical system of endless reincarnations with or without a concept of liberation from them). The naastik says there is no existence after death: as believed by Charvaka. An ajnaastik is one who does not know. I am an ajnaastik. A Hindu can be any kind of astik, naastik or ajnaastik. I am an ajnaastik, because I can neither accept nor deny anything without proof. Both an astik and a naastik think they know the answer, I know that I don't know the answer.

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    3. Wow sir I didn't know this about you. I assumed you were an atheist but now I know. However what is ajnaastik? I never heard this term before. I tried searching about it but found nil results. Could you please elaborate?

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    4. You wont find this term anywhere, because I invented it as a translation of the term "agnostic". This term has no sense in the context of "theist" and "atheist", but it has sense in the context of "astik" and "naastik".

      Richard Dawkins, in his book "The God Delusion", ridicules people who call themselves "agnostic" by claiming that they must be atheists who don't dare to accept that they are atheists and therefore use this word. He gives a hypothetical example of a belief that a huge teacup is encircling the earth, and says that you either have to believe in it or not believe in it, and if you agnostically say "I don't know" you are a hypocrite. The belief that a personal God has given specific instructions to mankind, that people who do not obey these instructions or pray to him or believe in him or believe in His Only Son Jesus or His final Prophet Mohammad will go to hell, etc. are beliefs as absurd as the teacup belief, and a person who says "I don't know" is a hypocrite.
      Dawkins is right, if you take the word ""agnostic" in the context of some specific religious belief.

      But in the context of whether or not there is existence after death, no one knows and no one can possibly know. Yet both astiks and naastiks claim that they know. The word ajnaastik (agnostic) is applicable here. An ajnaastik does not mean a person who is against religious beliefs: he/she may practice simple beliefs and customs and respect traditions, and pray to unknown forces, but will not claim to know that he knows and is absolutely right. Dawkins is a naastik, and he thinks he knows that there is no conscious existence after death.

      The one thing I want more than anything else in the world is to be with my parents again (who expired 18 and 8 years ago respectively), but I don't know whether it is possible, although I fervently hope it is. But even if it is possible, I can't know for sure in what form such a possible meeting could take place. No one knows what happens after death. So I am an ajnaastik. Religious beliefs (in "God", reincarnation, heaven hell, etc.) are all speculations.

      Delete
    5. Thank for your reply, your last comment was very heart touching. Do you have WhatsApp? or maybe you can give me your phone number? If you want I can give you mines and then you can give me a call. I like talk to you but not here.

      Delete
    6. I don't use a mobile phone or WhatsApp. I have a landline. You can give your number.

      Delete
    7. This comment has been removed by the author.

      Delete
    8. This comment has been removed by the author.

      Delete
    9. There is no question of dial tone. This is a landline. You have to just put the codes for India and Mumbai before it.

      Delete
    10. Okay, can you please give me the codes for India and Mumbai? Better you give so I don't dial the wrong codes.

      Delete
  27. Can you elaborate on how yadavas are Dravidian shepherds. I hear Yadava is derived from PDr "yatu" meaning "goat". Personally I looked up sanskrit words for shepherd and one of them was "vRSNipAla".

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    1. I'll try to speculate here, to the best of my knowledge.

      Refer to Talageri's other articles on Hinduism, and the ancient strands of Hinduism. The Anu-Druhyu-Pūru kind of religion, best expressed in the Ṛgveda, was only one strand.

      Talageri talks of the Yadu strand, which appears to be closer to nature, flora and fauna. It deifies local mountains, groves, forests and rivers. Even Kṛṣṇa, in his early years, exhorted his clansmen to eschew Vedic ritualism and worship their mountains and groves instead.

      Talageri speculates that this strand of religion was likely the dominant strand across most of India. Because of allusions to Yadu and Turvaśa in the Ṛgveda, we can also speculate that they were southern-Indian people. They also, likely, did not speak IE dialects.

      I think this is the reason to imagine Yādavas as Dravidians. Their association with cattle, bull and goats is recurrent in Indian literature. Kṛṣṇa and gopīs/gopālas need not be elaborated overmuch. Genealogy calls his clan the Vṛṣṇis as they descend from a patriarch of the same name.

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  28. Talageri sir, can you tewll me the distribution of gerunds in Rig Veda. Gerunds (like Krtva or Gatva) are said to be Dravidian influences. Gerunds arew found in Rig Veda but not in Avestan. Is there an explanation.

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  29. Were the composers of the Rig Veda, i.e. Sudas and Divodas Panchalas? I tried to find which part of Bharata lineage these kings were. I looked in kuru ancestry, but it turns out the kings relevant to Tig Veda were the Panchalas, who were an off shoot of the Bharata family tree. This means the Rig Veda was composed in 10-20 human generations. That is a 300-600 years span.

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    1. Nowhere in the Ṛgveda are Sudās and Divodāsa referred to as Pāñcālas, so we cannot conclude this from Ṛgvedic evidence.

      But from his genealogical reconstructions, Pargiter showed that Sudās, Divodāsa and their line of Ṛgvedic Tṛtsu Bhāratas could be the same as the Purāṇic North Pāñcāla line. Pargiter did this based on evidence of Saṁvaraṇa being defeated by a North Pāñcāla king, and speculated the king to be Sudās.

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    2. Yes, That is what I mean. It is from Puranic data. When it comes to Bharata kings, we can take the word of the Puranas because we can assume that the Ancient Indians valued to record their kings. Talageri places the RIg Veda date in a span of 2000 years, which is too much. The maximum span, in my opinion is 600 years. There is horse in India prior to 2000 BCE, as old as 3000 BCE. Spoked Wheels in Rig Veda, there is no mention of them being on a chariot, so we can take spoked wheels with a grain of salt. Although the Indus Valley have a spoked wheel sign in their script, which I think is to represent the sun. It is a sun cross, but instead of 4 spokes for 4 seasons, it is 6 spokes for the 6 seasons (rithus). I am yet to figure out a revised date now.

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    3. If I am not mistaken, Talageri has shown that spoked wheels appear only the in the later Ṛgveda, not the early books.

      I'm not sure if Talageri actually claims 2000 years for Ṛgvedic composition. His own analysis shows the earliest contemporary king to be Divodāsa in Book 6, and latest are Sahadeva and Somaka by Book 4. The non-family books were assembled a few generations after that. It yields your numbers- around 10/12 generations at maybe 5-6 centuries.

      You can refer to Igor Tonoyan-Belyayev's periodisation of the Ṛgveda, which is available on Academia. It is completely compatible with Talageri's OIT model, and I believe its chronology is correct.

      With Ṛgvedic chronology we will always hit against the issue of knowledge transmission. The Ṛgveda may have been put together in 6 centuries, but did all knowledge embedded in it also originate in these 600 years? Surely much knowledge would be far older, and be transmitted across time.

      Then there is the example of RV 8-39, where Nābhāka Kāṇva explicitly declares that the old songs of Māndhātṛ are "being sung anew in a new speech." This indicates that old ṛcas or sūktas might have been recomposed in the Ṛgvedic dialect, at the time of its assembly.

      When we speak of dates for the Ṛgveda, I think best we can speculate is the dates of "locking down" of the maṇḍalas in their final and current form.

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    4. I know that Talageri says spoked Wheels are mentioned in the Late Books l. I was advocating for an earlier date for New Rig Veda. Talageri thinks the New Rig Veda is as recent as 1500 BCE, which is too late. The latest king in Rig Veda is Shantanu in book 10. Shantanu is, I think 10 generations from Diviodasa.

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    5. I'm not sure if that is Talageri's date. But do take a look at Tonoyan-Belyayev. He places the core Ṛgvedic period between 2600-1900 BC, and allows for a pre Ṛgvedic period 3300-2600 BC. This is compatible with Talageri's model of IE dispersals, and actually also satisfies Witzel's criteria.

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    6. I will take a look if I can. Yes Talageri does have 1500 BCE as a late date. He dates the entire Rig veda from 3400 BCE to 1500BCE. He believes Mahabharata is 1500 BCE

      However I still think a 3100 BCE date can hold water. Vedveer Arya has done work on chronology to validate this. Also see this video by him:

      https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=Xm9mO-NKO7Q

      In all other ways, Talageri's model is promising.

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    7. Vedveer Arya's work is deep and promising as well, but I personally don't use that model because it has cascading effects on all other dates of not just Indian but world history, which I don't have resolution for.

      If one dates the Mahābhārata to 1500 BC, the Ṛgveda necessarily ends a few centuries before that, because Śāntanu is ancestral to MB characters.

      A single date, whether 3100 BC or another, for the Ṛgveda makes little sense. We must speak of earliest plausible centuries when ṛcas were composed in Ṛgvedic dialect, and the latest possible period when Ṛgvedic ṛcas were still being composed.

      I personally find strong reasons to place MB between 1900-1500 BC, and with this the Ṛgvedic period naturally falls 3500-1900/1700 BC.

      Also key is the Dāśarājña, which as Talageri puts it is "the recorded evidence of the last five IE branches existing on the Paruṣṇī River." PIE chronology has these 5 IE branches, the Eastern IE languages, dispersing 2500-1900 BC. This necessarily becomes the period of Sudās, Sahadeva and Somaka.

      Similarly, the Ṛgveda alludes to prior dispersals, during eras of Māndhātṛ and Sivi. This was the Western IE dispersal which happened 3300-2600 BC, and it is in line with Ṛgvedic suggestion for Māndhātṛ and Sivi, which are shown as ancestral even to the Ṛgvedic Bhāratas by many generations.

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    8. Talageri actually places Dasarajna war at 3100 BCE, where traditional OIT scholars would put MB war. This means Sudas is 3100 BCE. Drupuda is 5 generations from sudas (Drupuda was contemporary of MB war). That means from Sudas to MB War is 150 years. Then Talageri should place Mahabharata at 2800 BCE. Your date of Dasarajna was assuming Mahabharata at 1900 BCE, places Sudas at 2200 BCE, which is very late. I think the PIE branches dispersed from India earlier, from Talageri's prespective. In any case, I agree with your points.

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    9. How does one get 5 generations between Drupada and Sudās?

      If we follow Mishra's reconstruction, which takes 64 generations between Vaivasvat Manu and the generation that fought the Mahābhārata, then there are 13 generations between Drupad and Sudās.

      If we follow Pargiter's reconstruction with a total of 94 generations, there are 24 generations between Drupad and Sudās.

      With an estimate of 25 years per generation, that's a possibility of 300-600 years.

      When you take 5 generations between Drupad and Sudās, you only count the names- Sahadeva, Somaka, Jantu, Pṛṣtā. But any legitimate reconstruction of Purāṇic genealogies surmises that there are a number of gaps between these names, of forgotten generations.

      I agree that 2200 BC is very late for era of Sudās, which I'd rather link near 2600-2500 BC. In arriving at any date with certainty, we should value Ṛgvedic and linguistic evidence above Purāṇic evidence. This means the presence of last 5 IE branches at Paruṣṇī during Sudās' era, and the linguistic window of their dispersal from the homeland, gives an area of precision more than any reconstruction from Purāṇic genealogies.

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    10. It is difficult, I can say that Some of the kings don't follow the names trend that Talageri points out. For example king Ajamida, an ancestor of Divodasa, has "aja" in his name. This word is only found in the New Books. Same with King Hasti, who founded Hastinapura. Hasti also is a name found primarily in the New Books, but yet is an ancestor of Kuru. I wish Talageri could adress this, as he knows more on this.

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    11. This is the kind of half-baked Purana-based objections that really get on my nerves. Ajamilha is a composer in book 4, and a descendant of Suhotra who is a descendant of Bharadvaja in Book 6. Where in the Rigveda is he mentioned as an ancestor of Divodasa? And which new Rigveda have you discovered where "hasti" is found only in the New Books (and that too in names)? And where Book 4 is a New Book, or the word "aja" is found only in the New Books?
      Tomorrow, because we have late Classical Sanskrit and medieval names with "-simha", you will say these are Old Rigvedic names because the word "simha" is found in the Old Rigveda.
      And is Kuru a Rigvedic person, and does the Rigveda mention that he founded Hastinapura?
      Make whatever nonsensical statements you want, but please don't claim this is "the trend that Talageri points out". Please first examine which "trends" I have pointed out, as well as what is there in the Rigveda.

      And I don't know which crystal ball you consult when you give the number of generations between any two kings.

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    12. To Anonymous, if I may suggest, do consider calibrating your model. Linguistic and Ṛgvedic evidence is near-akin to hard data, whereas Purāṇic evidence is hardly cogent and much jumbled.

      Any Purāṇic data is at best supplementary, and only if it corresponds to the hard data of Ṛgveda. At the very least, you must engage with known reconstructions of Purāṇic history, like Pargiter or Mishra.

      I know that Talageri sir here will not agree with me, but I do believe that Pargiter's reconstruction can be mapped to his OIT model, with plausible timelines, almost as is. This is why I value it. If Pargiter's work made no sense against Talageri's data, I would discard the former.

      Mind you, I too have arrived here after much back-and-forth with Talageri sir and pestering him with half-baked Purāṇic doubts.

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    13. Talageri, when I mean New Rig Veda, I mean the New Book, I got my terminology mixed up. I thought ajamida is found in Mew Books because the word aja meant goat, and it mentioned in New Books. Guess I was wrong. I was wrong then, sorry. I used Mahabharata's geneology for Kuru and Hasti and Ajamida, because it was older than Purana.How do people composing Puranas get their king lists mixed up. I thought king lists would be accurate, as people naturally want to preserve the names of people who ruled them. Any way, thanks for the replies Talageri and Amrit.

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    14. Where can I find the list to the composers of the Rig Vedic hymns

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    15. Sorry if my last reply sounded abrupt or rude.
      My second book "The Rigveda - A historical Analysis" gives all the details about the composers.
      It is available on the internet, though with modified phonetic symbols:

      http://voiceofdharma.org/books/rig/

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  30. Talageri, what is you opinion on metals. The Yajur and Atharva Veda mention iron and copper as shyama ayas, and Lohan ayas, respectively. In Proto Dravidian, iron is cir-umpu, and copper is kewmpu. In both Sanskrit and Proto Dravidian, the names for their metals come from their respective roots for "red" and "black". I think the Vedic Aryans calqued the words for iron and copper from the Dravidians. The other way around is possible.

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  31. The thing is the Yajur and Atharva Veda mention metals like tin, lead, and iron and copper, for the first time. These metals became prominant in India from around 2500 BCE. Tin wasn't used in Bronze making until 2500 BCE. The Rig Veda, older or newer, doesn't mention these metals. Thus the Rig VEda, even its newer parts should be prior to 2500 BCE, if not, prior to 2000 BCE.

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  32. Shrikant ji reads this rubbish work:

    https://www.historydiscussion.net/civilisation/vedic-period-geographical-expansion-of-india-during-vedic-period/559

    What you think: the author thinks that Panis and Dasa are nativs while the rest are not.

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  33. Talageri ji, one thing always troubled me. Why Al-Biruni said that before Zoroaster, Buddhism had already spread in west Asia?

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    1. Yes because Buddhism is much more ancient than we told. He is atleast a thosand years older than what he is currently dated. (1800 BCE). A lot people, including our Shrikant ji, assume that these dates are valid. No confusion if we correct the dates.

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  34. There were 2 zoroasters apparently. Vedveer Arya has touched upon it. Buddha is better dated to 1865 BCE. You can search it up. This is how Buddha is placed before the second zoroaster. And this is what Alberuni is refering to.

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  35. Mr Shrikant ji, using the data that you have collected with regards to the evolution of names, it seems the Mahabharata has similar name endings with that of the Mittani and late Rig Vedic period. I'm curios here, it seems that a large portion of the Rig Vedic Mandalas are contemporary to the Rig Veda. This rule also applies to the time of Buddha. We can use these name endings to divide the Indic period into Early Vedic period, Late Vedic period and post Buddhist period. We can clearly see long of the time of Buddha, say after the Mauryan period the nameing convention changes: you have names like Chandragupta, Aryabhatta..they clearly point to post Buddhistic period. Maybe using this analysis we can further understand indian chronology.

    The dating of Buddha becomes a major problem, the names contain in the pali cannon suggest thats closer to the dating of the Mahabharata than the Mauryas. Names like Kassapa, Belaṭṭhiputta and Devadatta suggest a early dating of these texts. Again we still need more data. But this will be a start.

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  36. I meant contemporary to the Mahabharata.

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  37. Indian indologists should not use the Imaginary illogical PIE model to support their OIT theory. PIE never existed it was created to propagate the AIT/AMT BS.

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  38. Troll Babu itna chutiya hai ki parsuram ko parsi bol rha hai......jab tujhe sanskrit apne hisab se interpret karni thi to apne aap kuch bhi matlab bana leta na, debate karne aya hi kyu mc

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