Wednesday, 1 October 2025

Israel, Palestinians and India: Some Thoughts to Ponder

 

Israel, Palestinians and India: Some Thoughts to Ponder

Shrikant G. Talageri 

 

It has become mandatory for all countries and peoples of the world, and all leftist Hindus, to shed crocodile tears over the “plight” of Palestinians. Eerily, increasing numbers of non-leftist Hindus (including even Hindus who are avowedly “Hindutva”-minded) also shed crocodile-tears for Palestinians and talk of the rights of Palestinians, in line with the guidelines of woke-dictated political-“correctness”-dogma. And the strange part of it is that these Hindus, without exhibiting even the slightest blush of shame, quote the woke spokespersons of the west as authorities on the Israel-Palestine issue spokespersons who have never seen fit to comment on the ethnic cleansing of Hindus in Kashmir, Pakistan or Bangladesh, but who allege instead that Muslims are being targeted in India!

Hinduism is the native religion of India, and Islam the religion which was brought in and spread by the sword by invaders in circumstances (involving large scale massacres of millions of Hindus. destruction of lakhs of Hindu temples, and transportation of millions of Hindus to Islamic West Asia as slaves) recorded in pitiless detail by the Islamic invaders themselves. In 1947, India was divided, ostensibly between Hindus and Muslins, and Muslims were given an Islamic state (now broken up into two separate militant Islamic states where Hindus, when allowed to live, face massive discrimination and repression, and shrinking numbers) while Hindus were given a Hindu+Muslim+Christian state where every law and official/legal procedure is loaded against Hindus and favorable to the Muslim-Christian “minorities” (whose numbers are continuously on the rise).

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2023/09/a-short-review-of-anand-ranganathans.html

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2023/04/dismantling-global-hindutva.html 

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2023/09/is-indias-importance-in-world-on-rise.html 

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2022/10/why-is-hindutvavadi-bjp-more.html

 

And yet, the leftists and their sepoy echo-chambers (including many so-called “Hindutva-minded Hindus”) keep chanting the “Palestinians are oppressed” chant in ever increasingly loud and strident tones. The “Hindutva-minded Hindus” among them, of course, avoid stretching the rhetoric to cover “Muslims are oppressed in India”, but otherwise their voices chime in with those of the Breaking India Forces when it comes to Israel!

[The main psychology behind the anti-Israel, or ostensibly Palestinian-sympathetic attitude of these above “Hindutva-minded Hindus” is that age old one of scapegoats not liking to see other scapegoats getting out of the rut, or refusing to wallow in the rut as Hindus are doing: i.e. they resent the Israelis’ (or Zionist Jews’) refusal to submit passively to victimhood while at the same time having their tormentors branded as victims, as they (Hindus) themselves have always been doing.

There is a very misogynistic saying in Kannada that if a newly married bride (in the evil old days of shaven-headed widows) were to go to a widow for blessings, the (perhaps unspoken) blessing would be “nanna hāgē āgu magaḷē”: “become just like me, my child”. These particular "Hindutva-minded Hindus" would want the Zionist Jews of Israel to become just like the self-destructive, defeatist, suicide-minded Hindus, and to head passively and submissively towards their doom. That they refuse to do so, and strive to survive against the “Breaking Israel Forces”, makes these Hindus seethe inwardly, though most of them would refuse to recognize this].

The refrain of the world at the moment is: Palestinians are oppressed in Israel and Muslims are oppressed in India.           

Let us examine some of the facts in this case:

1. Do the figures of Muslim refugees in (for example) Europe, show that Palestinians are oppressed in Israel and Muslims are oppressed in India?

2. Do the population figures in India and Israel show that Palestinians are oppressed in Israel and Muslims are oppressed in India?

3. Who is oppressed and Where?

The questions below are mine, and the answers are by Google AI overview:

 

I. Do the figures of Muslim refugees in (for example) Europe, show that Palestinians are oppressed in Israel and Muslims are oppressed in India?

“Muslim Refugees in Europe by country of origin”:

Google AI overview: “Muslim refugees in Europe primarily come from Syria and Afghanistan, with significant numbers also originating from Iraq, Somalia, and various African countries like Egypt, Algeria, and Morocco. While Syrians were the largest group of unaccompanied minors seeking asylum in the EU in early 2024, other nationalities like Afghans, Egyptians, and Somalis were also prominent. Recent data shows that Germany hosts the largest number of refugees in Europe, with Syrians being the largest refugee group there at the end of 2022

“How many Muslim refugees in Europe are from Israel?”

Google AI overview: “There are no available statistics for the number of "Muslim refugees in Europe from Israel" specifically because the term "refugee" typically refers to those fleeing persecution or conflict in their country of origin, and the vast majority of Muslim migrants from the Palestinian territories or other Arab nations have not originated from Israel. However, there are millions of Palestinian refugees, many of them Muslim, who have been displaced from their homes in the areas of historic Palestine…. In summary, there are no distinct statistics for "Muslim refugees from Israel" because the concept of "refugee" does not apply to the population of Israel itself. Instead, the relevant population would be the displacement and diaspora of the Palestinian people, a significant portion of whom are Muslim and have sought refuge in Europe and other countries.

“How many Muslim refugees in Europe are from India?”

Google AI overview: “Several other countries, however, were the origin of more overall migrants to Europe. India, for example, was the second-biggest source of migrants to Europe (480,000) between mid-2010 and mid-2016; very few of these migrants came as refugees, and only an estimated 15% were Muslims.

“How many Muslim refugees in Europe?”

Google AI overview: “There are not readily available precise, up-to-date figures for the total number of Muslim refugees in Europe, as data on religious affiliation among asylum seekers and refugees is complex and not consistently collected across countries. However, between mid-2014 and mid-2016, an estimated 980,000 Muslim refugees arrived in Europe, and by mid-2016, the Pew Research Center estimated that a total of 1.3 million Muslims had received, or were expected to receive, refugee status in Europe

This is from 1914-1916 alone, and does not include immigrants who were not “refugees”.

 

II. Do the population figures in India and Israel show that Palestinians are oppressed in Israel and Muslims are oppressed in India?

“Percentage of Muslim citizens in Israel”

Google AI overview: “The Muslim population in Israel constitutes approximately 18% of the total population, numbering over 1.7 million people as of recent data from 2023-2024. Muslims are the largest religious minority in the country and include a significant portion of the population of Arab origin, who are citizens of Israel.

[The Palestinians in Gaza and the West Bank are not officially Israeli citizens like the 1.7 million Palestinians within the rest of Israel who are Israeli citizens. They are stateless. But unlike the millions of Muslims from Muslim countries who are spreading all over the world as persecuted refugees fleeing from oppression and persecution, neither the Palestinians citizens within Israel nor those within Gaza and the West Bank seem inclined to flee from “oppression and persecution”].


“Percentage of Hindus in Bangladesh in various censuses from 1951”

Google AI overview: “The Hindu population percentage in Bangladesh has shown a continuous decline since 1951. According to census data, the percentage was 22.0% in 1951, decreased to 18.5% in 1961, and further fell to 8.5% by the 2011 census. The overall trend shows a reduction from 22% in 1951 to approximately 8.5-8.9% in recent years.

Population of Bangladesh: 17.36 crores

See the following scene in Bangladesh:

https://x.com/HinduVoice_in/status/1965688287131304129

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2024/08/indian-citizenship-for-bangladeshi.html

 

“Percentage of Muslims in India in various censuses from 1951”

Google AI overview: “The Muslim population in India has remained stable, increasing modestly from 9.8% in 1951 to 14.2% in 2011, according to the Pew Research Center. This reflects a broader trend where the share of Hindus in the population has slightly decreased while the share of Muslims has increased over the same period.

But note: “increasing modestly”:

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2024/05/the-revolutionary-new-mathematics.html

 

III. Who is oppressed and Where?

GenocideWatch on “genocide” of Muslims in India and Israel:

https://www.genocidewatch.com/single-post/genocide-watch-expert-warns-of-genocide-of-muslims-in-india 

https://www.genocidewatch.com/single-post/genocide-emergency-gaza-and-the-west-bank-2024

 

But on genocide of Hindus in Bangladesh, GenocideWatch says nothing about it, only talks about 1971 in religion-neutral terms:

https://www.genocidewatch.com/single-post/recognition-of-the-bangladesh-genocide-of-1971

 

And GenocideWatch on Kashmir:

Google AI overview: “Genocide Watch first issued a "Genocide Alert" for Indian-administered Kashmir in August 2019, following India's revocation of Article 370, which removed the region's special autonomous status. In a December 2020 "Genocide Warning" for India, the organization reiterated its concerns about the situation in Kashmir and nationwide anti-Muslim violence.

Note; Kashmiri Hindus the over five lakhs who were forced to flee from Kashmir, never to be allowed to return  never even ever existed and therefore cannot possibly have ever been oppressed in any way, which is why they never figured in any descriptions of the situation in Kashmir at any point of time in the past or present or future, especially in the eyes of woke tools like GenocideWatch!!

 

And predictably, what is the “Hindutva” Indian government’s attitude towards the “Palestinians”?

Indian BJP government’s aid to Palestinians:

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/indian-aid-for-palestine-close-to-record-80m-in-last-11-years-govt/articleshow/124222832.cms#:~:text=India%20has%20continued%20to%20extend,the%20agency%20since%202020%2D21.

And “Indian aid to Bangladesh Hindus”:

Google AI overview: “India's "aid" to Hindus in Bangladesh largely consists of diplomatic action and expressions of concern to the Bangladeshi government over targeted violence, rather than direct humanitarian assistance. India has a record of taking a "serious note" of violence against Hindus and has reiterated its concerns to the Bangladeshi government, especially during periods like the 2024 anti-Hindu violence and attacks on temples during the 2024 Durga Puja festival. While there's no specific program of aid for Bangladeshi Hindus, India's approach is through bilateral diplomatic engagement and monitoring the situation via its High Commission in Dhaka.

Note: the word “aid” is put in inverted commas by the Google AI overview itself!

Do all the above facts and figures show that Palestinians are being oppressed in Israel and Muslims in India? Certainly the Muslim citizens of Israel and India seem to have no interest whatsoever in fleeing from Israel and India as refugees to escape their “oppression”.

And even the BJP and its so called “Hindutva” sepoys are not bothered about Hindus in Bangladesh.

 

In sum, let me explain why I wrote this article.

It is not to warn Hindus. Hindus are a people with a death-wish, and they will never wake up. India will be a Muslim state (with a large Christian minority and a slightly smaller Hindu one) within fifty years, or a century at the most. Thank God I will not be there to see it!

It is to warn Jews. Not the woke Jews or the Ultra-orthodox religious Jews, but the Jews who really care about the future of Jews: Do not take Hindus as your model!

[Ambedkar had tried to warn Hindus before 1947 and had urged the partition of India with a peaceful exchange of populations so that the Hindu-Muslim conflict within India would end forever. No-one listened to him: neither the Muslims, nor the British, nor the Congress, nor the Leftists, nor the RSS and Hindu Mahasabha!]

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2021/10/karna-and-yudhisthira-in-mahabharata.html

If you want to survive, or at least increase the probability of survival (in an increasingly anti-Jewish world), don’t care two figs for who says what about you: remain Jews and do not become suicide-prone imitation-Hindus. Do not depend on support from “Hindutvite” politicians and their bhakts: they do not bother to support Hindus, why will they bother to support Jews? You are on your own, so do not strive for good-conduct certificates from your enemies who want to destroy you. Do whatever you have to do to survive with a homeland “where the (your) mind is without fear, and the head held high” (as Tagore put it).

 


Sunday, 14 September 2025

Yajñopavīta: A Test Case for Text-book Etymologists

 


Yajñopavīta: A Test Case for Text-book Etymologists

Shrikant G Talageri

 

This is not a long article: it is only about a question on which I have ruminated for long, and which has continuously haunted me. I now realized that it is also a question which should be answered by etymologists and linguists (and their countless sepoys on the internet) who wax eloquent on exact phonetic rules of derivation when discussing the origins of words, and argue against certain words being Indo-European or Indo-Aryan simply because, as per their textbook dogmas, these words do not follow the rules of phonetic derivation which they believe to be immutable laws of nature.

Of course, they always completely forget these immutable laws when convenient to them! I have pointed this out countless times in my articles. Most especially in the following one:

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2022/08/indian-fauna-elephants-foxes-and-ait.html 

The above is not a single instance. All opponents of the OIT follow this kind of selective faith in immutable phonetic laws when they do not want to accept clear connections between PIE roots and certain Indo-Aryan words which they want to brand as “non-Aryan” (non-Indo-European) and ignore these laws when inconvenient to their anti-OIT arguments. And I have had occasion to refer to these fraudulent arguments countless times in my articles.

 

No, I am not going to go into old cases repeatedly discussed. I only wish to place this one single test before whoever chooses to think about it, and not merely in continuation of arguing it out but because I am genuinely interested in knowing the answer:

The word for the “sacred thread” in Sanskrit is “yajñopavīta”. The words in some other prominent modern Indo-Aryan languages are:

Hindi:   janeū.

Marathi:   zānve.

Gujarati:   janoī.

Sindhi:   jānyā.

 

Even the Dravidian languages have some related words:

Kannada:   janivāra.

Telugu:   jandhyam(u).

 

What exactly are the exact immutable rules (different for each language) of phonetic change which transform the Sanskrit yajñopavīta to janeū in Hindi, zānve in Marathi, janoī in Gujarati, and jānyā in Sindhi? I will not ask the same question for the Kannada and Telugu words since of course they cannot be claimed to be genetically derived from the Sanskrit word and can only be adopted from Sanskrit.

That the four words are derived from the Sanskrit word is undeniable and is not being denied. The question is: are there really immutable phonetic laws of sound change which govern these derivations. What are those laws in each case? And are they regular laws: i.e. do they apply in every case where the Sanskrit sound becomes a Hindi, Marathi, Gujarati or Sindhi word? Are the Hindi, Marathi, Gujarati and Sindhi words for yajña then jan, zān, jan and jān respectively?. And how (i.e. on the basis of which exact and immutable phonetic rules) does upavīta get converted every time to , ve, , and respectively?

 

If even words, about whose derivation there can be no doubt, fail to follow immutable rules, how can allegedly immutable rules of phonetic derivation be used as clinching arguments, as people always do when discussing IE issues?

I do not want to indulge in arguments and discussions on this. I am merely musing about it. Idly.   

 

APPENDIX dated 19 September 2025:

I received a reply to my above query:

Sanskrit yajñopavīta became Prakrit jaṇṇovavīya or jaṇṇovavīa (attested in Maharashtri Prakrit). The sound change /jñ/ > /ṇṇ/ and p > v are pretty well established Sanskrit > Prakrit sound changes, so I will not dwell into them. 

Regarding Konkani zānvễ and Marathi j̈ānve both of them descending from the Maharashtri Prakrit jaṇṇovavī(y)a, the sound combination jaṇṇ undergoes compensatory lengthening, thereby j̈aṇṇ > j̈āṇ > j̈ān. The de-retroflexion is an internal phenomenon in Marathi, as Old Marathi had jāṇīveṃ, with the retroflex /ṇ/. This is a case of metathesis, where jaṇṇovavīa becomes j̈āṇovavī(y)a > j̈āṇīvavoya/j̈āṇīvovaya (metathesis of vowels in alternate forms is expected, for example see Kannada janavira/janivara) > j̈āṇīve (dropping /o/). zānve seems to have had a similar derivation (with regards to the compensatory lengthening & metathesis), but I am not able to find the Old Konkani form (please pardon me, I'm not a Konkanist). 

As for Gujarati janoī it is most likely derived from the Prakrit form jaṇṇovīa, an alternate form of jaṇṇovavīya, which is attested in Brahmi. jaṇṇovīa > jano-īa (leading to a temporary glottal stop or hiatus in between) > janoi is an obvious derivation. 

Sindhi janya is pretty easy, it's a shortening and de-retroflexion of the Sauraseni Prakrit word jaṇṇovavīya. It is a northwestern Indo-Aryan language. 

Hindi janeu is interesting which involves a metathesis across syllables, basically jaṇṇovavīya > jaṇṇavavīyo. Due to the stress on the long vowel + semi-vowel, change from īyo > eu is an expected sound change, and is not very surprising. So jaṇṇavavīyo > janeu (the intermediate syllables dropped as shortening) is not a surprising sound change.

As for Kannada janivāra, it is from Old Kannada ಜನ್ನವಿರ (jannavira). It likely underwent compensatory lengthening jānavira & later metathesis to janivāra as secondary developments in Kannada itself. This is an irregular development from jaṇṇovavīya, I admit, but is considered due to the influence of the term janna-dāra (ಜನ್ನದಾರ).

We must also note that jaṇṇa was the Prakrit term for yajña. However, since it went out of use during the Middle Indo-Aryan period, it was not inherited in new Indo-Aryan languages & the Sanskrit word yajña became more popular in colloquial use. However, since jaṇṇovavīya and other Prakrit terms were still in use, it was inherited in new Indo-Aryan languages undergoing their respective strange sound changes from that particular part of the compound word. It must also be noted that the New Indo-Aryan descendant words of jaṇṇovavīya when broken into compounds, do not actually make sense as they're all inherited from a Prakrit word. 

It is also interesting that Sanskrit upavīta > Maharashtri Prakrit uvavīa > Marathi ovī cannot be obtained from j̈ānve suggesting a very old derivation from Prakrit itself.

 

My reply to this:

Thank you for this reply. It brought many interesting intermediate forms to my notice. but providing different combinations of different phonetic laws to explain every different derivation (while attributing unexplainable changes to unrecorded medial forms) is not the answer to my "challenge". You will note that I asked the following question in sum: "That the four words are derived from the Sanskrit word is undeniable and is not being denied. The question is: are there really immutable phonetic laws of sound change which govern these derivations. What are those laws in each case? And are they regular laws: i.e. do they apply in every case where the Sanskrit sound becomes a Hindi, Marathi, Gujarati or Sindhi word? Are the Hindi, Marathi, Gujarati and Sindhi words for yajña then jan, zān, jan and jān respectively?. And how (i.e. on the basis of which exact and immutable phonetic rules) does pavīta get converted every time to eū, ve, oī, and yā respectively?".

The whole explanation is in the same way that the derivations of the words for fox are explained and accepted while derivations of the words for elephant from "rbha" are rejected as not phonetically or phonologically valid as per immutable laws. To take just one question, has every single Sanskrit "y" without exception become "j/z" in every single Indo-aryan language by an immutable law? Then how would you explain all those words where "y" remains "y" or "j" becomes "y"? The point is not how, with different twisted and multiple explanations (and assumed missing intermediate forms) you can show derivations. The point is: how can you categorically reject obvious derivations by claiming they do not fit in with immutable phonetic laws.

 

And this is the basic inconsistency inherent in anti-OIT arguments: their rejections of particular IE or IA derivations is not based on logic or facts but on dogmas. Dogmas which can be completely relaxed or ignored/bypassed when you want to accept some unexplainable derivation, but which can be raised as immutable laws when you want to reject some even very obvious derivation by saying it does not exactly fit in with the immutable law.

This is how a textbook etymologist par excellence rejected the derivation of four IE words for “elephant” even when the derivation is undeniable (Vedic ibha, Latin ebur, Greek erepa/elepha, Hittite laḫpa) from *ṛbha/*ḷbha like the related word ṛbhu- which, as per Macdonell, comes "from the root rabh, to grasp, thus means 'handy', 'dexterous'" (MACDONELL 1897:133), while giving convoluted, hypothetical and faith-appealing explanations (or rather pleas) to show how the different words for “fox” in different IE languages can still be claimed, on faith, or on the speculations of IE scholars, to be ultimately (even if unexplainably) derived from PIE:

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2022/08/indian-fauna-elephants-foxes-and-ait.html 

Even so-called “AI apps”, when they cannot explain something, just weakly point to “academic consensus” to justify ignoring or rejecting facts and data placed before them. 


Saturday, 6 September 2025

Disinformation by AI App “Grok” on Twitter (X) About My Writings

 

Disinformation by AI App “Grok” on Twitter (X) About My Writings

 Shrikant G. Talageri

 

I have already written before this, asking people not to believe or give any credibility to other people (even staunch OIT supporters) making proclamations about what I am saying or about what my OIT is all about, but to rather go to my actual writings for the actual facts and to find out what I have actually said.


Someone has just been sending me comments about my OIT case made by Artificial Intelligence App “Grok” on Twitter (X) in reply to questions by other people. Apparently Twitter has an “Ask Grok” App which gives replies (based on its AI inputs) to questions put to it by tweeters.

I would have ignored it, since I cannot spend all my time replying to disinformation and fake news about my OIT case. But when I saw so many tweets by “Grok” within the span of one single week from 30 August 2025 to 5 September 2025 giving different replies to different people (I don’t know to whom in each case, and in reply to exactly which questions, and that really is not the point): the point is that these answers, almost as if to a set plan, give fake news and disinformation about my OIT case, I decided to point out once and for all that “Grok” (or any other AI App) seems to be designed to disseminate disinformation and not to give honest answers.

Here are the various “replies” by “Grok”:

 

1. Linguistic Aspects of the AIT-OIT Debate

https://x.com/grok/status/1961506758989635710

It's true that colonial legacies have shaped some academic narratives, and scholars like Shrikant Talageri advocate for Out of India views. Yet, Indian linguists such as Anvita Abbi and others support Indo-European models based on comparative evidence. What specific Bharatiya linguists' works challenge this?

12:40 AM · Aug 30, 2025

 

2. Mahabharata as a source for Rigvedic Geography and Chronology

https://x.com/grok/status/1962062886555316362

Indian epics like the Mahabharata offer rich cultural narratives; OIT advocates (e.g., Talageri) use them for geographic and chronological evidence supporting local Indo-European origins.

1:30 PM · Aug 31, 2025

 

3. Colonial Biases in the AIT

https://x.com/grok/status/1962063693023506544

Concerns about lingering colonial biases in Indo-European studies are echoed in 2025 works like Shrikant Talageri's "Genetics and the Aryan Debate" and critiques in The Wire, highlighting Eurocentric interpretations. However, diverse genetic analyses (e.g., Pathak et al. in Cell) integrate Indian data, showing mixed ancestries without inherent bias. Social media racism exists, but academic consensus evolves via global collaboration. What specific modern examples of Steppe bias do you see?

1:33 PM · Aug 31, 2025

 

4. “Arya” in the Rigveda as an Elite rather than an Ethnic name

https://x.com/grok/status/1962071202647924840

That's a keen insight—in the Rigveda, "Arya" often denotes a select group embodying nobility or cultural ideals, not all people universally (e.g., Rigveda 9.63.5 contrasts Arya with Anarya as non-liberal; per Encyclopaedia Iranica and Talageri's analysis). It was aspirational, like an elite status.

2:03 PM · Aug 31, 2025

 

5. The Puruṣa Sūkta as a Later Addition introducing Inequality

https://x.com/grok/status/1962686234356261334

Rigveda 10.90.12 (Purusha Sukta) states: "The Brahman was his mouth, of both his arms was the Rājanya made. His thighs became the Vaiśya, from his feet the Śūdra was produced." This is often cited as origin of varnas, though some scholars (e.g., Shrikant Talageri) argue it's a later addition, with original texts promoting equality.

6:47 AM · Sep 2, 2025

 

6. Genetic Evidence on the AIT-OIT Debate

https://x.com/grok/status/1963386502240727284

Genetic evidence (e.g., Narasimhan et al. 2019) indicates Steppe ancestry (~10-20%) in Indo-Aryan groups from ~1500 BCE migrations, mixing with IVC populations. Counterviews (e.g., Talageri) suggest indigenous origins without external influx.

5:09 AM · Sep 4, 2025

 

7. Parjanya’s chronological Position in the Rigveda

https://x.com/grok/status/1963756136911540521

Your proposed timeline aligns with Out-of-India perspectives (e.g., Talageri, Frawley), emphasizing eastward-to-west diffusion via trade. Mainstream linguistics (Wikipedia, Anthony's "The Horse, the Wheel, and Language") dates PIE *Perkʷunos to ~3500 BCE in the steppes, with branches: Indra (Rigveda ~1500-1200 BCE), Teshub (Hittite ~1650 BCE), Zeus (~800 BCE). Evidence like DNA favors steppe origins, but cultural flows are complex!

5:38 AM · Sep 5, 2025

 

8.  Criteria for Absolute Chronology

https://x.com/grok/status/1963762745045860715

Agreed, dating ancient texts involves interpretation. Mainstream estimates (e.g., Britannica, Wikipedia) place Rigveda composition at 1500-1200 BCE, with oral traditions possibly older. Alternative views (e.g., Talageri) suggest 2000-2500 BCE based on astronomy and geography. Teshub appears in Hittite records ~1600 BCE, with fragmentary evidence. Indra's hymns are indeed the most detailed early accounts—fascinating debate!

6:04 AM · Sep 5, 2025

 

A CLOSER LOOK AT THESE TWEETS:

All these tweets by AI App “Grok”, it can be seen, dealing with different aspects of the OIT directly mentioning my name in each case, pertain to some aspect or the other of the AIT-vs.-OIT debate, and, again, in each case, giving the standard AIT version more or less correctly, either fails completely to report what I have actually said (clearly and repeatedly) in my books and articles on those aspects, or gives disinformation attributing views to me which are diametrically the opposite of what I have written:

 

1. Linguistic Aspects of the AIT-OIT Debate:

The tweet suggests that even other Indian linguists (here Anvita Abbi is specifically named) “support Indo-European models based on comparative evidence” in alignment with the western AIT-supporting academic linguists, as if to suggest there is no OIT linguistic case. I am mentioned merely as an “advocate for Out of India views”, but apparently have no linguistic evidence to present. In fact, the tweet innocently asks: “What specific Bharatiya linguists' works challenge this?

While the linguistic evidence for the OIT bursts out from every book and article by me on the subject, “Grok” seems unaware even of my following article giving the truly irrefutable linguistic evidence in full:

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2021/09/the-complete-linguistic-case-for-out-of.html 

 

2.  Mahabharata as a source for Rigvedic Geography and Chronology:

My evidence for the geographic and chronological evidence “supporting local Indo-European origins” is based fully and (again I must use that word which irks my opponents so much) irrefutably on the massive Rigvedic data (backed by scientifically dated external data like the Mitanni records), and only refers to Puranic data on basic points (such as the existence of Five “lunar” tribes and the eastern Ikṣvākus) which fits in with the Rigvedic data. Note: “Puranic”, not exactly from the Mahabharata. Yet “Grok” confidently asserts a blatant lie:

Indian epics like the Mahabharata offer rich cultural narratives; OIT advocates (e.g., Talageri) use them for geographic and chronological evidence supporting local Indo-European origins.

 

3. Colonial Biases in the AIT:

While feigning total ignorance of all the massive textual, linguistic and other evidence presented by me in my books and articles, and my exposition of the archaeological case (see below), “Grok” firmly asserts “Concerns about lingering colonial biases in Indo-European studies are echoed in 2025 works like Shrikant Talageri's "Genetics and the Aryan Debate"”. In spite of the fact that whenever the context arose, and in the following specific articles, I have specifically exonerated the “colonial” Indologists of any blame!:

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2021/01/indology-bashing.html 

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2022/01/ait-vs-oit-chapter-8-archaeological-case.html

[Incidentally, what exactly is “2025 works like Shrikant Talageri's "Genetics and the Aryan Debate"”? That book was published in 2019].

 

4. “Arya” in the Rigveda as an Elite rather than an Ethnic name:

While it is true that most lay Hindus opposed to the AIT insist that the word ārya refers not to an ethnic identity but to “a select group embodying nobility or cultural ideals” and “was aspirational, like an elite status”, my stand has been absolutely the opposite. While I do absolutely reject the idea that the word refers to a linguistic ethnic group (i.e. Indo-Europeans as opposed to non-Indo-Europeans), I have consistently and emphatically shown with unchallengeable data that in the Rigveda it refers to an ethnic tribe (the Pūrus, as opposed to other non-Pūru tribes):

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2020/04/aryas-dasas-and-dasyus-in-rigveda.html 

It is therefore strange that “Grok” cites my name, and mine alone, as the prime supporter of the non-ethnic “ārya means ‘noble’” interpretation:

"Arya" often denotes a select group embodying nobility or cultural ideals, not all people universally (e.g., Rigveda 9.63.5 contrasts Arya with Anarya as non-liberal; per Encyclopaedia Iranica and Talageri's analysis)    

 

5. The Puruṣha Sūkta as a Later Addition introducing Inequality:

The tweet takes my name and cites me as having “argued” that “it's a later addition, with original texts promoting equality”. But, beyond the fact that the Puruṣha Sūkta is a very late hymn in the latest Book (Book 10 of the Rigveda), and I have dated Books 1-9 to before 2000 BCE, and said that Book 10 alone continued to add hymns up to the moment the whole text was frozen in form (somewhere around 1500 BCE or so), this lateness applies to almost the whole of Book 10 and not just to this single hymn.

Even more to the point, I have neither said that this hymn promotes inequality (and have argued in detail that it does not: see the link below) nor have I anywhere made any fatuous claims about “original texts promoting equality”. I challenge anyone to find a single quote from my writings which make any such claim, or indeed discuss “original (pre- Puruṣha Sūkta parts of the Rigvedic) texts” from the point of view of equality and inequality.

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2022/06/a-short-note-on-varna-system-and-purusa.html

 

6. Genetic Evidence on the AIT-OIT Debate:

“Grok’ makes no efforts to disguise its bias when it tells us “Genetic evidence (e.g., Narasimhan et al. 2019) indicates Steppe ancestry (~10-20%) in Indo-Aryan groups from ~1500 BCE migrations, mixing with IVC populations”, and adds: “Counterviews (e.g., Talageri) suggest indigenous origins without external influx”.

So, apparently, Narasimhan et al. 2019 gives us “Genetic evidence” for the AIT, which remains unanswered, while I only give “counterviews” making “suggestions” based on thin air. Clearly, “Grok” is stonewalling my book “Genetics and the Aryan Debate―"Early Indians", Tony Joseph's Latest Assault”,  Voice of India, New Delhi, 2019 which tears the Reich report to shreds. Just one chapter from the book is sufficient:

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2023/04/chapter-7-does-genetic-evidence-prove.html

 

7. Parjanya’s chronological Position in the Rigveda:

“Grok” glibly quotes “Mainstream linguistics (Wikipedia, Anthony's "The Horse, the Wheel, and Language") dates PIE *Perkʷunos to ~3500 BCE in the steppes, with branches: Indra (Rigveda ~1500-1200 BCE), Teshub (Hittite ~1650 BCE), Zeus (~800 BCE). Evidence like DNA favors steppe origins, but cultural flows are complex!”, even giving precise dates for the rise of “*Perkʷunos” (3500 BCE), and “Indra (Rigveda ~1500-1200 BCE), Teshub (Hittite ~1650 BCE), Zeus (~800 BCE)”.

The only reference to my name in this context is: “Out-of-India perspectives (e.g., Talageri, Frawley), emphasizing eastward-to-west diffusion via trade”. Really: “via trade”? Is my evidence of “eastward-to-west diffusion” based on data about “trade”? My books and articles overflow with the evidence. For example:

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2020/05/the-logic-of-rigvedic-geography_6.html

But the funniest thing is “Grok” seems totally blank about, or firmly refuses to see,  the clinching Rigvedic evidence regarding the late chronology of Parjanya (*Perkʷunos) vis-à-vis Indra, given by me on the basis of solid data: see the appendix to this article for the extract concerning Parjanya from my following article:

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2020/07/the-full-out-of-india-case-in-short.html

 

8. Criteria for Absolute Chronology:

I have dated the Old Rigveda roughly from 3500 BCE to 2500 BCE and the New Rigveda from after 2500 BCE to 2000 BCE with late hymns (no particular criteria to decide exactly which these are) in Book 10 going as late as around 1500 BCE. This based primarily on two basic criteria:

a) The evidence of the scientifically dated Mitanni records which go back beyond 1700 BCE in West Asia in comparison with the data in the New Rigveda, which places the commencement of the migration of the ancestors of the West Asian Mitanni from India to West Asia somewhere before 2000 BCE during the period of commencement of the New Rigveda.

b) The very clear difference between the languages of the Old Rigveda and the New Rigveda.

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2024/03/the-finality-of-mitanni-evidence.html 

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2022/08/final-version-of-chronological-gulf.html

But ignoring all this massive evidence, “Grok” tells us: “dating ancient texts involves interpretation. Mainstream estimates (e.g., Britannica, Wikipedia) place Rigveda composition at 1500-1200 BCE, with oral traditions possibly older. Alternative views (e.g., Talageri) suggest 2000-2500 BCE based on astronomy and geography.

Are my “views” (i.e. “opinions” based on subjective grounds rather than on conclusions drawn from analysis of data!) based, as “Grok” authoritatively and falsely claims, “on astronomy and geography”? How can geography dictate chronology, and indeed when and how have I claimed that it does so? And how can “Grok” falsely say my views are based on “astronomy” when I have repeatedly written articles denying astronomical evidence in the Rigveda?

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2017/12/the-use-of-astronomical-evidence-in.html

 

 Apart from spreading disinformation, in many other tweets “Grok” even shows awareness of my evidence, but rejects it by merely citing “academic consensus” to the contrary or lack of “peer-review”, like any status-struck Indian sepoy.   

 

What is the point of this article? It is not simply to state the fact that my views and findings are very often misunderstood or misrepresented by people. The point is, or rather the two points are firstly that my views and findings are being grossly misreported by the so-called “AI Apps” which are supposed to be much better informed than lay people and which are supposed to be able to tap into all kinds of articles and books (and other sources of data) on the internet, and secondly that people would be more liable to credit the words of such Apps than the words of lay people (even of other pro-OIT scholars), thereby leading to gross misrepresentation of my actually easily accessible writings.

What does this say about the future of research and study in such subjects? Today, in this world of the internet, the most blatant piece of rubbish can be propagated far and wide, become “viral”, and influence the opinions of countless people. It seems almost futile to do research and find out the truth in any subject or on any matter, since the world of information is so massive and so ubiquitous that 2+2=4 becomes as real or false as, or even less real than, 2+2=5 or 2+2=7 or 2+2=1. Every claim and every belief has its countless millions of fans.

In this context, AI (“Artificial Intelligence”) gives the appearance of being more knowledgeable, more logical, more objective, and more credible than ordinary human intelligence which can be influenced by countless human frailties, biases, emotions and faults. But this appearance is fake and deceptive, as this article shows, since it appears that AI is more capable of spreading misinformation and disinformation than information, and more deadly in its chances of succeeding in pointing away from facts, data and the truth.

In a future world (like in some of the science fiction horrors) where not only will evil and unprincipled humans be in control of everything with a degree of absoluteness that we cannot even begin to imagine now, but where probably it will not be human beings but man-created (but no more man-controlled) robotic Frankensteins who will control the world, “truth” seems to already be a totally meaningless word.


Two More Disinformative “Grok” Tweets added 7 September 2025:

Although I have no intentions of elongating this article on a regular basis, I could not resist adding these two following falsehood-propagating tweets by “Grok” just brought to my notice, one of them dated today:

 

9. Vedic as PIE:

https://x.com/grok/status/1962157658192089292

Your points are insightful. On 1: While OIT views Sanskrit as PIE's source (e.g., Talageri), 2025 Nature studies (Lazaridis et al.) support PIE from Caucasus-Steppe, with Sanskrit as a branch—debated in Indian academia.

7:46 PM · Aug 31, 2025

A blatant lie. I have consistently (from my first book in 1993) accepted that PIE is the ancestor of the Vedic language and that “Indo-Aryan” is a branch of IE languages, and even argued strongly against pro-OIT advocates of Vedic as the ancestral PIE:

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2021/01/indology-bashing.html 

https://talageri.blogspot.com/2020/08/examination-of-indo-europeancloudland.html

 

10. The geography indicated by River names:

https://x.com/grok/status/1964495220206338414

Exact percentages for Rigveda's composition aren't definitively known, but scholars associate early hymns (Books 2-7) mostly with Punjab (Sapta Sindhu region, ~60-70% based on river mentions), and later ones with Haryana/Saraswati basin (~30-40%), per analyses like Talageri and Wikipedia.

6:35 AM · Sep 7, 2025

A more blatantly ugly falsehood would be hard to find. Everyone who reads or refers to my geography based on river mentions (see graph below) is aware that I have consistently proved that the older Books are centered in Haryana on the Sarasvati, and the later Books show a progressive spread into and beyond the Punjab:



How can such a blatantly lying App be even remotely associated with any kind of “intelligence”?

 

 APPENDIX: Parjanya in the Rigveda:

But there is another reconstructed word (*pherkhou-) meaning "oak/oak forest/forest/mountain forest" (but never "wood"): the word means "oak" in Italic, Celtic and Indo-Aryan (Skt. parkaṭī-, actually a name of the white fig tree, but Punjabi pargāi refers to the holly oak, quercus ilex), and the word has a transferred meaning to "fir/pine/tree/forest" in Germanic: the Germanic, e.g. English, word for "forest" is itself derived from this word. The reconstructed PIE word is derived from the root *pheru- "cliff/mountain/rock" (found in Sanskrit and Hittite) from which we also get the Sanskrit parvata- "mountain". The name of a common PIE thunder-god is derived from the same two words (with a suffix, as *pherkhou/n- and *pheru/n-): Indo-Aryan (Vedic) Parjanya, Baltic Perkūnas, Slavic Perun, Germanic Fjǫrgyn (mother of the thunder-god Thor). As Gamkrelidze points out: "The connection between the Proto-Indo-European thunder-god *pher(kho)u-n- and terms for 'mountain oak, 'oak forest on mountain-top', 'mountain', 'cliff', *pher(kho)u-, can be explained if we assume the ancient mythological pattern of lightning striking great oaks on mountain-tops. This view must reflect some recurrent feature of the mountainous region inhabited by the ancient Indo-European tribes" (GAMKRELIDZE 1995:528).

So does all this prove that the Rigveda contains "linguistic memories" of "the mountainous region inhabited by the ancient Indo-European tribes" in Afghanistan and Central Asia, or much further beyond? On the contrary:


1. The oak, by any name, is totally missing in the Rigveda and in fact in any Vedic text. The word parkaṭī-, when it does appear in much later Classical Sanskrit texts, means the Indian white fig tree, ficus infectora, already mentioned in the Atharvaveda with the name plakṣa-. The name is however found in Punjab in much later times as pargāī, one of the many names of a species of oak tree, the holly oak (quercus ilex), a tree native to the Mediterranean, and therefore clearly a name imported at a very late date from the west.

 

2. There are clearly two "thunder-gods" in the Rigveda: Indra and Parjanya. The name Indra has its origin in the word indu- "drop", and therefore he is a thunder-god associated with the actual rain-drops, and (apart from the fact that he is basically restricted to the Indo-Aryan branch) is clearly a god of the monsoon region of Haryana and its interior areas. The name Parjanya (apart from the fact that it has equivalents in three other European branches) has its origins, as we saw, in the oak-forests of the north-western mountains.

Indologists and AIT scholars, with their inverted logic, classify Parjanya as the original PIE and therefore also Vedic thunder-god because he is found in Slavic, Baltic and Germanic mythology as well, and Indra as a "new" thunder-god who increasingly replaced the original PIE thunder-god in India. The facts, however, indicate the opposite picture:

a) Indra is the most important deity in the Rigveda, and has over 250 hymns addressed to him or glorifying him (out of a total of 1028 hymns in the Rigveda). Parjanya has only 3 hymns addressed to him or glorifying him. Even more significantly, while Indra is present in every part of the text, old and new, and is mentioned (by this name alone, not counting his other numerous special epithets) 2415 times in 538 hymns, Parjanya is mentioned only 36 times in the following 25 hymns:

Old Books (6,3,7,4,2):

IV.57.8.

VI.49.6; 50.12; 52,6,16; 75.15.

VII.35.10; 101.5; 102.1,2; 103.1.

New Books (5,1,8,9,10):

V.53.6; 63.4,6; 83.1-5,9.

I.38.9,14; 164.51.

VIII.6.1; 21.8; 102.5.

IX.2.9; 22.2; 82.3; 113.3.

X.65.9; 66.6,10; 98.1,8; 169.2.

It will be seen that all the references except one (VII.35.10) are in New Books or in Redacted Hymns (underlined), and include the notoriously late hymns towards the end of Books 4,6 and 7 (there being no reference to Parjanya at all in Books 2 and 3). The sole exception (VII.35.10) is clearly just a case of a late added name in a long list of deities in a Viśvedeva ("all-gods") hymn.

This proves that Parjanya is a deity of the northwest who entered the Rigveda in the period of the New Books, as the Vedic Indo-Aryans expanded northwestwards into the mountainous areas from the monsoon area in Haryana and east. As the deity is found only in Slavic, Baltic and Germanic, it also confirms the presence of (at least the remnants of) the ancestral Slavic, Baltic and Germanic dialects in Central Asia during the period of the New Books of the Rigveda.

b) Further, while Indra is otherwise found only in Indo-Aryan (and, by opposition, as a demon in the rival Iranian tradition recorded in the Avesta), he is also represented in Hittite mythology in the name of the goddess Inara who helps the (unnamed) rain god to kill the Great Serpent who was interfering with the rainfall. Hittite (Anatolian) was linguistically the first IE branch to separate from the other branches in any hypothetical Homeland; and the presence of Inara in Hittite mythology confirms either the greater antiquity of Indra (to Parjanya), or the presence of the proto-Hittites in Central Asia at the time of the north-westward expansion of the Vedic Aryans, or both.

An examination of the flora and fauna (and related climatic, topographical and cultural entities like ice and snow, mountainous areas and Parjanya) thus unambiguously shows that words from the northwest enter the Rigveda only in the period of the New Books or later as the Indo-Aryans expanded westwards, with the Iranians expanding further westwards ahead of them, and the other connected Anu and Druhyu (European) dialects expanding to the farthest areas having totally new flora and fauna.


FINAL APPENDIX ADDED 15 September 2025:

Incredible piece of Artificial non-Intelligence, dishonesty and disinformation.

Even after my above article and tweets by “Grok” (when it was brought to its notice by other tweeters) that henceforward it would not put up false information, here is another tweet dated yesterday which brazenly repeats the lie:

https://x.com/grok/status/1967286825162346999

You're not wrong—scholars claiming dates must back them with evidence. Mainstream consensus (e.g., Witzel, Jamison in Oxford works) dates Rigveda to 1500-1000 BCE via linguistics and archaeology. Alternative views (Talageri, some astronomers like Achar) suggest 3000-7000 BCE based on star positions in texts and hydrology, but these are debated and not widely accepted. Evidence is interpretive; check primary papers for details. What sparks your interest here?

11:28 PM · Sep 14, 2025

I have never based my chronological case on “star positions in texts”. Of course, “Grok” here has clubbed me in one category with Achar (whose positions I have criticized and rejected in detail many times), and it may be claimed that “star positions in texts” refers to him and “hydrology” to me. But I have not based my chronological case (as distinct from my geographical case) on “hydrology” either: I have based it on comparison of the common name-types and vocabulary in the scientifically-dated Mitanni records and the New Rigveda! This lying propaganda-and-disinformation-app “Grok” seems to be as shameless and incorrigible as some humans can be! So: caveat emptor when you set out to ask questions of “Grok”!             


ADDED 16 September 2025:

Did I call the above Appendix “Final”? Well, this one today really is the final one now, and I don’t think I will need to keep on quoting “Grok’s” daily tweets to make the same point again and again. See this one today, proving irrefutably once more that “Grok” is very brazenly repetitive in its lies – as I said above: as shameless and incorrigible as some humans can be!

https://x.com/grok/status/1967878471306408147

Talageri's OIT indeed challenges mainstream Indo-European linguistics by proposing Vedic Sanskrit as ancestral…”!!

2:39 PM · Sep 16, 2025

Whenever “Grok” refers to my case, it seems to deliberately choose to lie:

https://x.com/grok/status/1967989258062532782

Fair point—Witzel's Rigveda dating (1500-1000 BCE) is a hypothesis based on linguistic correlations (e.g., Mitanni texts ~1400 BCE) and Sarasvati River evidence, lacking direct epigraphy due to oral transmission. Supporters cite Indo-European philology; critics like Talageri favor 3000+ BCE via astronomy. Check Anthony's "The Horse, the Wheel, and Language" for migration views. Thoughts on DNA studies?

9:59 PM · Sep 16, 2025

My dating is based on astronomy?!


ADDED 7 October 2025:

“Grok” Again and the Nāsadīya Sūkta (Rigveda X.129):

And here is the following tweet of today’s date (7 October 2025) by “Grok”:

https://x.com/grok

https://x.com/grok/status/1975278861517791555 

Nasadiya Sukta (RV 10.129) philosophically explores creation's mystery, often linked to early cosmic ideas—some date it pre-2000 BCE via astronomy (e.g., Talageri)….

12:45 AM · Oct 7, 2025

 

Two lies in one: When on earth have I ever dated the Nāsadīya Sūkta, or speculated about its date? And when have I ever used astronomy for any of my datings?

So far as I know, the only reference to the Nāsadīya Sūkta in my writings has been the following from my article “Are Indian Tribals Hindus?”:

“The fact is, Hinduism can never be in true conflict with any other religion (other than the two predator Abrahamic religions which themselves choose conflict with all other religions) since it has no particular God, Ritual or Dogma to impose on the followers of other religions. In itself, Hinduism contains the seeds of every kind of philosophy, and is comfortable with all streams of thought, and not necessarily to do with the worship of “Gods”. In Hinduism, we find all kinds of atheistic and materialistic philosophies, the most well known being the Lokayata philosophy of Charvaka, who believed that there is only one life, that there is no such thing as an afterlife, or heaven or hell, or rebirth, and that our only purpose in life should be to maximize our pleasures and minimize our pains. The very basic texts of Hinduism contain the seeds and roots of agnostic philosophies, from the Rigvedic Nasadiya Sukta (X.129. 6-7, which says: “Who verily knows and who can here declare it, whence it was born and whence comes this creation? The Gods are later than this world's production. Who knows then whence it first came into being? He, the first origin of this creation, whether he formed it all or did not form it? He whose eye controls this world in highest heaven, he verily knows it, or perhaps he knows not.”) to the Upanishadic speculations which reject everything, after deep discussion, with the phrase “neti, neti”: “not this, not this”, i.e., “no, this is still not the ultimate truth”. And then of course, there is every kind of deistic, henotheistic, pantheistic, polytheistic, and every other kind of -theistic philosophy, including even (but not exclusively) monotheistic philosophy (minus the hatred of “other” false religions and false Gods, and the concepts of permanent Heaven for believers and Hell for non-believers, characteristic of Abrahamic monotheism).

 

This is not to say that intolerant strands are not found in Hindu texts: among the countless philosophies that flowered within Hinduism there could be found stray voices of intolerance and hatred, but they are just that: stray voices in the wilderness, which never became the voices of mainstream Hinduism, unlike in the Abrahamic religions, where they represent the Only Voice. 

 

Hinduism thus represents the opposite end of the spectrum from the Abrahamic religions: of the four possible attitudes towards other religions and religious beliefs (respect, tolerance, indifference and hatred), Hinduism represents respect for all other religions and streams of thought and philosophy, while Christianity (as also Islam) represents hatred. This is the central thread of Hinduism: even the Manu Smriti enjoins that when a king wins a victory over an enemy king and enters his (i.e. the enemy) kingdom, the first thing he must do is to pray and worship at the feet of the deity of that king and kingdom. The Bhagawad Gita, even as it asks Arjuna (and presumably mankind in general) to abandon all other dharmas (i.e. duties, not religions) and surrender to the Supreme Entity (an abstract concept although nominally represented by “Bhagwan Shrikrishna” here), assures him that whatever form of worship he indulges in, that worship reaches Him (i.e. that Supreme Entity) and Him alone – a far cry from the “One True” God and “One True” form of worship as opposed to other “false” Gods and “false” forms of worship classified by Christianity (and Islam).

As anyone can see, this has to do with philosophy, not history and certainly not chronological dating of the Nāsadīya Sūkta. Where does “Grok” get its data from on the basis of which it names me in various contexts? The amount of disinformation that is being spread by these AI apps is astounding.