Is India Safe For Hindus?
Stop these Divisive Questions: Unite for Ayodhya 2024!
Shrikant G. Talageri
Is India safe for Hindus? The following video and twitter thread say it all:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=g-KsBDb0Bgc
https://twitter.com/hashtag/KajalHindustani?src=hashtag_click
As a corollary to this (not a single event but only one of the latest in an endless and accelerating sequence of events since 2014), will Hindus realize that they are not safe in India any more than they are in Pakistan, and will they ever think of acting on this realization? Will something positive for Hindus happen in 2024?
Stop this divisive talk. 2024 is approaching. Remain United for 2024.
Get ready for Ayodhya 2024. I do not know if there will be border skirmishes with China or Pakistan in late 2023 or early 2024. It is very likely that there will be; but then these things are not announced beforehand. But certain things are announced beforehand: the prāṇa pratiṣṭhā of the bhavya Rām Mandir at Ayodhya (financed from the pockets of ordinary Hindus; who also, through their taxes, finance the multi-crore minorities-only schemes of the government, which in its turn rakes in the money from the Hindu temples that it governs and whose finances and assets it controls ─ although it cannot control, and has no intentions of trying to control, the finances and assets of Muslim mosques and Christian churches) has practically been announced for January 2024, and the Lok Sabha elections 2024 will also be announced shortly for some time in May 2024.
So don't worry: between possible border skirmishes and temple inaugurations, and in the resultant explosion of patriotic and religious fervor, and with everyone from all sides performing their respective roles to the hilt, safety and security of Hindus will be (as they indeed are) issues of zero importance. 2024 will only be 2019 repeated with even greater intensity and fervor. And 2024-2029 will also be 2014-2024 repeated with even greater intensity and fervor.
Jai Shri Ram.
Hindi translation available at: https://shikharnanda.blogspot.com/2023/04/is-india-safe-for-hindus-stop-these.html
ReplyDeleteThank you ever so much, Shikhar Nanda ji.
DeleteThank you Shrikant ji.
DeleteThis question is not related to this particular post but about the broader question that you are addressing through your books and blog... while search for language family tree, I came across separate language trees where atleast there is conjecture about individual languages in specific language family ( indoeuropean, dravidian, turkic etc) and how those are related, which one are closer to each other, which one are further apart, which one are older...etc etc. There can be further questions about these relations and one can contest the individual family tree...ex. whether old greek and vedic sanskrit are contemporary or vedic sanskrit is far older, whether centum -shatam. division of language makes sense etc etc...My question/ wonder is different than that...I want to know what is the relation between different language families... for example...is vedic sanskrit/ proto indoeuropean closer to dravidian languages or is it closer to turkic languages or to afroasiatic languages or to munda language? Is there rigorous woek on that? Can such work be done? I think there must be atleast some theories about this as well....but are those theories free of western biases ( ex. by default assuming steppe origin of IE languages...thus trying to find relation with not dravidian or munda but to georgian-kartevelian languages etc etc) ..Thus the summary question would be, which other language family according to you is closest to indoeuropean family? thus what is your conjecture about the language before protoindoeuropean...was it dravido-indo-european? or mundo-indoeuropean?
ReplyDeleteThe languages other than tamizh except few like Brahui or Gond are attested only to a maximum of 1800 BP. Tamizh's history goes beyond that and it preserves root words ( purely vocabulary, not grammar) that suggests it goes further beyond. The roots can be putatively related to PIE roots suggested by the Western etymological derivations of English<-German/French<-Greek or Latin. There are many examples. But then basic words like numbers , personal pronouns and many other basic words bring IE cluster together. Grammar clinches the evidence further, even though grammar itself may have been proposed much later as a systematic artifact.
DeleteI will provide one example *kwel - for wheel as per western PIE etymology. Only tamizh has the word kAl for a chariot wheel (tEr cakkaram), where it also means "leg". It is attested in old treatises like tirukkuraL. And it is interesting that there is a legendary association between kAl and cakra like kAl cakra ( the wheel of time). Initial anthropological suggestion will be time was measured using human foot steps. Time is after all just motion. And the word "leg" has no PIE derivation , it is instead, traced to old Norse: https://www.etymonline.com/search?q=leg
Deleteit appears from your answer that you did not get my question. I am not debating whether european and indian languages are closer to each other or not..and are not part of one language family. I am debating if we consider protoindo european language..and then hypothetical PRE language prior to proto-indoeuropean....thus we go further deep in history...whether during such times PRE-protoindoeuropean language that existed was that made up of ancestor of proto dravidian AND protoindoeuropean...or was that made up of ancestor of protoindoeuropean. and proto-turkic languages...or was that made up of ancestor of protoindoeuropean. and proto-semitic languages. Hope I made my question cleaer now.
DeleteIn academia there is only one frame of thought called the nostratic proposal or hypotheses , which is pursued by some , but does not have traction. Unfamiliarity with tamizh and how words developed and are rooted there may have still stalled it. We are also talking of an era when we don't knw what any structure of languages were then! Whether they had full sentences , etc. like in today's literary or spoken language. Only evidence if at all is etymological and that too based on phonetic affinity (folk etymology with anthropological suggestions) more than a detailed transformation rules of sounds particles as in modern linguistics.
DeleteI looked into nostratic hypothesis.....as you talked about it, here. Nostratic super-famil puts indo-european langauges with altaic languages..far away from dravidian or austroasiatic languages. Now you also provide this additional input about difficulty with ancient language classification, ...now if they have similar difficulties in constructing nostratic hypothesis...then probably it was not the "data" ..but their "biases" that helped them categorize indoeuropean languages closer with altaic..languages more so than dravidian and austroasiatic languages.
DeleteTalegeri Ji, what do you think of the following: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CYAZPS4FhIM
ReplyDelete